Wikipedia Exam: Free Resource for Exam Preparation

Marketing and Banking Aptitude : Objective Questions for fothcomming Examination

2008-11-04T00:45:00.000-08:00

Banking and Marketing Aptitude

Questions

1. A prospect means

a) any customer who walks into the bank

b) an employee of the bank

c) a customer who is likely to be interested in bank’s product or service

d) a depositor of the bank’

e) a borrower of the bank

2. A lead means

a) a prospect who is more likely to avail of the Bank’s product

b) a political leader

c) a religious leader

d) a bank chairman

e) None of these

3. Innovation means

a) Compensation

b) inspiration

c) additional perquisites

d) implementing new ideas or new methods

e) None of these

4. A Call means

a) calling on friends

b) calling on bank employees

c) calling on prospective customers

d) to make telephone calls

e) calling on relatives

5. The Traditional Marketing style involves

a) Telemarketing

b) Digital Marketing

c) Indirect Marketing

d) Direct Marketing

e) All of these

6. Modern Method of Marketing include

a) Publicity on the net

b) Advertisement on the net

c) Soliciting business through e-mails

d) Tele marketing

e) All of these

7. A true marketing requires

a) Command and other mindset

b) Control Mindset

c) Passive mindset

d) Active mindset

e) None of these

8. Which of the following sentences is true?

a) Marketing is not required in a Buyers’ Market

b) Marketing is not required in a Sellers’s market

c) Marketing is not required due to competition

d) Marketing is not required due to liberalization

e) Marketing is not required due to globalisation

9. For effective marketing the salesmen should have which of these qualities?

a) Creativity

b) Team spirit

c) Motivation

d) Effective communication skills

e) All of these

10. Market information means

a) Knowledge of shops and bazaars

b) Knowledge of shopping malls

c) Knowledge of customer profile and product mix

d) knowledge of various languages

e) None of these

11. Market Research is needed for

a) checking the market area

b) checking the right product to be sold

c) making proper marketing decisions

d) deciding right time to sell

e) All of these

12. Which of the following statement is true

a) Marketing makes the company to go into loss due to higher expenses

b) Marketing is not required in profit making companies

c) Marketing sharpens the minds of the employees

d) Marketing is a time bound seasonal function

e) Marketing is a waste of time

13. Marketing plan helps in

a) better lead generation

b) better systems

c) better results

d) improved balance sheet

e) better customer service

14. If Marketing is done effectively which of the following is not required?

a) Advertisement

b) Publicity

c) Market Research

d) Market Segmentation

e) None of these

15. Motivation means

a) Inspiring employees to perform better

b) Better communication skills

c) Sales Coaching

d) Market Research

e) None of these

16. In a Selling Process in today’s world?

a) Only standard products are sold

b) No customization required

c) the seller need not have product knowledge

d) the seller should aim at customer satisfaction

e) only quantum of sales matters

17. Find the true statement

a) Marketing is a waste of the employees’ time

b) Marketing is not required in India due to its vast population

c) Marketing involves additional work

d) Marketing involves team work

e) Marketing is not required today due to IT advancement

18. A Target market is

a) entire country

b) entire city

c) entire globe

d) that which consists of customers who need the identified product

e) all of these

19. Sales forecasting involves

a) Sales Planning

b) Sales Pricing

c) Distribution Channels

d) Consumer tastes

e) All of these

20. Which of the following product is being sold under the brand name ZODIAC

a) Shirts

b) Ties

c) Both A and B

d) Liberty

21. SWIFT - cars are being manufactured by

a) DCM

b) Maruti

c) Premier Automobiles

d) Hyundai

22. With you all the way is the slogan of

a) Vodafone

b) SBI

c) ICICI

d) Raymonds

23. Which company used the slogan "The complete Man"

a) DCM

b) GRASIM

c) RAYMONDS

d) VIMAL

24. Which brand uses the slogan "Made for each other" for its cigarettes?

a) Cavenders

b) Four Square

c) Red & White

d) Wills

25. Cross Selling means

a) Identifying customer needs

b) matching the products to customer needs

c) convincing the customers of product benefits

d) responding to questions and objections of customers

e) all of these

ANSWERS

1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (d) 4 ( c) 5 (d) 6 (e) 7 (d) 8 (b)

9 (e) 10 (c) 11 (e) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (b) 15 (a) 16 (d)

17 (d) 18 (d) 19 (e) 20 (c) 21 (b) 22 (b) 23 (c) 24 (d)

25 (e)

S.S.C. Combined Graduate Level (Pre.) Exam., 2008

2008-11-03T03:44:00.000-08:00

S.S.C. Combined Graduate Level (Pre.) Exam., 2008

(Held on 27-7-2008)

General Awareness

1. Which of the following is not considered as National
Debt ?

(A) National Savings Certificates

(B) Long-term Government Bonds

(C) Insurance Policies

(D) Provident Fund

Ans : (C)

2. The main determinant of real wage is—

(A) Extra earning

(B) Nature of work

(C) Promotion prospect

(D) Purchasing power of money

Ans : (D)

3. The birthrate measures the number of births during a year per—

(A) 100 population

(B) 1000 population

(C) 10000 population

(D) 100000 population

Ans : (B)

4. Which of the following is not included in the National
Income ?

(A) Imputed rent of owneroccupied houses

(B) Government expenditure on making new bridges

(C) Winning a lottery

(D) Commission paid to an agent for sale of house

Ans : (C)

5. Personal disposable income is—

(A) Always equal to personal income

(B) Always more than personal income

(C) Equal to personal income minus indirect taxes

(D) Equal to personal income minus direct taxes

Ans : (D)

6. Who prepared the first estimate of National Income for the country ?

(A) Central Statistical Organisation

(B) National Income Committee

(C) Dadabhai Naoroji

(D) National Sample Survey Organisation

Ans : (C)

7. A Bill referred to a ‘Joint Sitting’ of the two Houses of the
Parliament is required to be passed by—

(A) A simple majority of the members present

(B) Absolute majority of the total membership

(C) 2/3rd majority of the members present

(D) 3/4th majority of the members present

Ans : (A)

8. Who is the constitutional head of the Government of India ?

(A) President

(B) Prime Minister

(C) Chief Justice of India

(D) Attorney General

Ans : (A)

9. Who certifies a Bill to be a Money Bill in India ?

(A) Finance Minister

(B) President

(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(D) Prime Minister

Ans : (C)

10. By which Amendment were ‘Fundamental Duties’ added to the
Constitution ?

(A) 40th Amendment

(B) 42nd Amendment

(C) 44th Amendment

(D) 45th Amendment

Ans : (B)

11. The Vice-President of India is elected by—

(A) The members of the Parliament

(B) The members of the Rajya Sabha

(C) The elected members of the Parliament

(D) The members of the Parliament and State Legislatures

Ans : (A)

12. When was the comprehensive reorganisation of Indian States completed in
accordance with the recommendations of States Reorganisation Commission ?

(A) 1953

(B) 1956

(C) 1960

(D) 1966

Ans : (B)

13. When Mahatma Gandhi was assassinated, who said, "None will believe
that a man like this in body and soul ever walked on this earth" ?

(A) Bertrand Russell

(B) Leo Tolstoy

(C) Albert Einstein

(D) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

Ans : (C)

14. Who built the ‘Tower of Victory’ (Vijay Stambha) in the Chittor Fort
?

(A) Rana Sanga

(B) Rana Ratan Singh

(C) Rana Hamir Deva

(D) Rana Kumbha

Ans : (D)

15. In violation of the Salt Laws, Gandhiji started a movement called—

(A) Non-Cooperation Movement

(B) Swadeshi Movement

(C) Civil Disobedience Movement

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

16. In which of the following wars, were the French completely defeated by
the English ?

(A) Battle of Wandiwash

(B) Battle of Buxar

(C) Battle of Plassey

(D) Battle of Adyar

Ans : (A)

17. The Cabinet Mission came to India in—

(A) 1943

(B) 1944

(C) 1945

(D) 1946

Ans : (D)

18. The first to come and the last to leave India were—

(A) The Portuguese

(B) The French

(C) The English

(D) The Dutch

Ans : (A)

19. IR 20 and Ratna are two important varieties of—

(A) Wheat

(B) Bajra

(C) Jowar

(D) Paddy

Ans : (D)

20. The Trans-Siberian Railway (9438 km) connects…...........… in the
West to …........… in the East.

(A) Moscow, Tashkent

(B) St. Petersburg, Omsk

(C) Moscow, Irkutsk

(D) St. Petersburg, Vladivostok

Ans : (D)

21. Indira Gandhi Rashtriya Udan Academy is located at—

(A) Secunderabad

(B) Rae Bareilly

(C) Jodhpur

(D) Delhi

Ans : (B)

22. Which one of the following rivers of Peninsular India does not join
Arabian Sea ?

(A) Periyar

(B) Cauvery

(C) Narmada

(D) Tapti

Ans : (B)

23. Which one of the following correctly describes AGNI ?

(A) A fighter plane

(B) A versatile tank

(C) A long-range missile

(D) A long-range gun

Ans : (C)

24. Instrument used for measuring area on maps is called—

(A) Planimeter

(B) Eidograph

(C) Pantograph

(D) Opisometer

Ans : (A)

25. If the blood group of one parent is AB and that of the other O, the
possible blood group of their child would be—

(A) A or B

(B) A or B or O

(C) A or AB or O

(D) A or B or AB or O

Ans : (A)

26. How many bones are there in the human body ?

(A) 187

(B) 287

(C) 206

(D) 306

Ans : (C)

27. Dinosaurs were—

(A) Mammals that became extinct

(B) Large herbivorous creatures which gave rise to hippopotamus species

(C) Egg-laying mammals

(D) Reptiles that became extinct

Ans : (D)

28. Sweat glands in mammals are primarily concerned with—

(A) Removal of excess salts

(B) Excretion of nitrogenous wastes

(C) Thermoregulation

(D) Sex-attraction

Ans : (C)

29. The vitamin that helps to prevent infections in the human body is—

(A) Vitamin A

(B) Vitamin B

(C) Vitamin C

(D) Vitamin D

Ans : (A)

30. The normal RBC count in adult male is—

(A) 5•5 million

(B) 5•0 million

(C) 4•5 million

(D) 4•0 million

Ans : (B)

31. A storm is predicted if atmospheric pressure—

(A) Rises suddenly

(B) Rises gradually

(C) Falls suddenly

(D) Falls gradually

Ans : (C)

32. The gas which turns into liquid at the lowest temperature among the
following is—

(A) Hydrogen

(B) Oxygen

(C) Helium

(D) Nitrogen

Ans : (A)

33. An egg sinks in soft water but floats in a concentrated solution of salt
because—

(A) Egg absorbs salt from the solution and expands

(B) Albumin dissolves in salt solution and egg becomes lighter

(C) The density of salt solution exceeds the density of eggs

(D) Water has high surface tension

Ans : (C)

34. What should a person on a freely rotating turn table do to decrease his
(angular) speed ?

(A) Bring his hands together

(B) Raise his hands up

(C) Spread his hands outwards

(D) Sit down with raised hands

Ans : (C)

35. Gunpowder consists of a mixture of—

(A) Sand and TNT

(B) TNT and charcoal

(C) Nitre, sulphur and charcoal

(D) Sulphur, sand and charcoal

Ans : (C)

36. Which of the following is the sweetest sugar ?

(A) Sucrose

(B) Glucose

(C) Fructose

(D) Maltose

Ans : (C)

37. In nuclear reactors, graphite is used as a/an—

(A) Fuel

(B) Lubricant

(C) Moderator

(D) Insulator

Ans : (C)

38. Which of the following celestial bodies contains abundant quantities of
helium-3, a potential source of energy ?

(A) Earth

(B) Moon

(C) Venus

(D) Saturn

Ans : (D)

39. Which of the following International Tennis Tournaments is held on grass
court ?

(A) US Open

(B) French Open

(C) Wimbledon

(D) Australian Open

Ans : (C)

40. What is the name of the writer of Indian origin whose novel, The
Inheritance of Loss has bagged Man Booker Prize ?

(A) Vikram Seth

(B) Kiran Desai

(C) Salman Rushdie

(D) V. S. Naipaul

Ans : (B)

41. Which country from the following is a permanent member of the UN
Security Council ?

(A) Switzerland

(B) People’s Republic of China

(C) Japan

(D) Ukraine

Ans : (B)

42. The Loktak Lake on which a hydroelectric project was constructed is
situated in the State of—

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Manipur

(C) Meghalaya

(D) Himachal Pradesh

Ans : (B)

43. What is the motto incorporated under our National Emblem ?

(A) Satyam Shivam

(B) Satyam Shivam Sundaram

(C) Satyameva Jayate

(D) Jai Hind

Ans : (C)

44. The H5N1 virus which causes bird flu was first discovered in—

(A) 1991

(B) 1995

(C) 1997

(D) 2001

Ans : (C)

45. The Southern tip of India is—

(A) Cape Comorin (Kanyakumari)

(B) Point Calimere

(C) Indira Point in Nicobar Islands

(D) Kovalam in Thiruvananthapuram

Ans : (A)

46. According to a resolution adopted by the United Nations General
Assembly, ‘International Day of Peace’ is observed every year on—

(A) September 1

(B) September 14

(C) September 21

(D) September 30

Ans : (C)

47. Where was the last Asia Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) Summit held
?

(A) Sydney

(B) Auckland

(C) New York

(D) Beijing

Ans : (A)

48. According to the UN Convention on the rights of children, which of the
following is not a right ?

(A) Safe drinking water

(B) Adequate standard of living

(C) Education

(D) Marriage

Ans : (D)

49. Who is the author of Ageless Body, Timeless Mind ?

(A) V. S. Naipaul

(B) Deepak Chopra

(C) Dom Moraes

(D) Tony Kusher

Ans : (B)

50. Which cricketer holds the record for scoring highest number of runs in a
test match innings ?

(A) Gary Sobers

(B) Vivian Richards

(C) Sunil Gavaskar

(D) Brian Lara

Ans : (D)

SBI Probationary Officer's Exam Solved Paper (Held on 12-10-2008)

2008-11-03T02:29:00.000-08:00

SBI Probationary Officer's Exam Solved Paper

(Held on 12-10-2008)

General Awareness/Computer Knowledge

1. Balmiki Prasad Singh has taken over as Governor of _____

(A) Goa

(B) Bihar

(C) Meghalaya

(D) Sikkim

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

2. The Paralympic Games in September 2008 were held at _____

(A) Tokyo

(B) New York

(C) Madrid

(D) Stckholm

(E) Beijing

Ans (E)

3. Which of the folowing is/are True about the National Rainfed Area Authority (NRAA) which was in news recently?

(1) The NRAA was set-up in 1955 at the initiative of the then Prime Minister J.L.Nehru

(2) NRAA was established to co-ordinate the work of five ministries associated with the development of rainfed areas

(3) NRAA is now converted into a Corporation of the same name

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1 , 2 & 3

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

4. Dalichi Sankyo has recently taken over which of the following Companies/Corporation of Indian base /

(A) Jet Airways

(B) Ranbaxy

(C) Bhilai Steel Plant

(D) National Textiles Corporation

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

5. The recent report on Global Development Finance released by the World Bank has projected India's GDP growth rate at which of the following levels?

(A) 5 %

(B) 6 %

(C) 7 %

(D) 8 %

(E) 9 %

Ans (C)

6. which of the following cities is placed at the top of the list of cities found suitable for "Global Commerce" compiled by the master cards? (Result of the survey were published in various financial newspaper)

(A) London

(B) New York

(C) Tokyo

(D) Beijing

(E) Mumbai

Ans (D)

7. The New Capital Adequacy Framework prescribed for banks in commonly known as ___

(A) Credit Policy

(B) Monetary Policy

(C) KYC Norms

(D) Basel Accord

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

8. As we all know Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) in the percentage of the deposit banks keep in reserve with them . This ratio is also known as ___

(A) Repo Rate

(B) Reserve Repo Rate

(C) SLR

(D) Liquidity Ratio

(E) None of these

Ans (E)

9. The sudden turn of events in the economic environmental globally , in the last four to five month have resulted in slowing down of India's economic growth. Which of the following is/are the event(s) which has/have put their impact on Indian economy?

(1) Turmoil in US Credit market

(2) Large scale increase in the prices of crude oil and foodgrains

(3) Adoption of Basel II norms by the banks

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Both 1 & 2 only

(E) All 1,2 & 3

Ans (D)

10. Which of the following is India's Tax GDP ratio ?

(A) 5 %

(B) 15 %

(C) 25 %

(D) 30 %

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

11. Which of the following is known as 'Himadri' ?

(A) It is India's Space Craft launched to study the moon

(B) It is India's first Research Station in Arctic Region

(C) It is new battle tank produced by India

(D) It is new warship inducted in the Indian Navy recently

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

12. The Govt. of India recently announced a subsidized pricing policy based on nutrients in it of which of the following to protect the interest of the farmers ?

(A) Seeds

(B) Pesticides

(C) Fertilizers

(D) Organic Manure

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

13. The next Non-Aligned Movement SAummit 2009 is scheduled to be held in ___

(A) India

(B) Egypt

(C) Brazil

(D) South Africa

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

15. Ghulam Nabi Azad was in the news recently as he has resigned from the post of the ___

(A) Governor, Jammu & Kashmir

(B) Chief Minister , Jammu & Kashmir

(C) Governor , Jharkhand

(D) Chief Minister, Jharkhand

(E) Governor, Manipur

Ans (B)

15. When the growth of GDP in a country slows down suddenly,people start losing their jobs and the situation continues for several weeks,what name is given to this state of economy (A big was in this state recently.) ?

(A) Inflation

(B) Recession

(C) Deflation

(D) Economic Boom

(E) None of these

Ans (B)

16. "Lisbon Treaty" is the treaty accepted/adopted by the members of which of the following organizations recently ?

(A) NATO

(B) SAARC

(C) European Union

(D) Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG)

(E) None of these

Ans (C)

17. When a corporate entity wishes to raise money from the market it can do that by issuing ___

(A) Treasury Bill

(B) Momerandom of Association

(C) Kisan Vikas Patra

(D) National Saving Certificate

(E) Commercial Papers

Ans (E)

18. Russia has recently made a ceasefire Agreement with which of the following nations ?

(A) Ukraine

(B) Kazakhastan

(C) Croatia

(D) Georgia

(E) None of these

Ans (D)

19. The Govt. of India has decided to build a Nuclear Power Plant in which of the following North Eastern States ?

(A) Manipur

(B) Assam

(C) Meghalaya

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

(E) None of these

Ans (E)

20.India won it's individual Gold Medal in Beijing Olympic 2008 in which of the following events ?

(A) Hockey

(B) Football

(C) Lawn Tennis

(D) Swimming

(E) Rifle Shooting

Ans (E)

Computer General Awareness For Bank PO's, Bank Clerk Exam

2008-11-01T02:17:00.000-07:00

Computer General Awareness

(Bank PO, Bank Clerk)

1. Which of the following is a part of the Central Processing Unit?

a. Printer

b. Key board

c. Mouse

d. Arithmetic & Logic unit

e. None of these

2. CAD stands for

a. Computer aided design

b. Computer algorithm for design

c. Computer application in design

d. All of the above

e. None of these

3. Which of the following printer cannot print graphics?

a. Ink-jet

b. Daisy Wheel

c. Laser

d. Dot-matrix

e. None of these

4. A program written in machine language is called?

a. Assembler

b. Object

c. Computer

d. Machine

e. None of these

5. The father of Modern Computer is

a. Charles Babbage

b. Von-nuumann

c. Danies Ritchel

d. Blaise Pascal

e. None of these

6. The Word FTP stands for

a. File Translate Protocol

b. File Transit Protocol

c. File Transfer protocol

d. file typing protocol

e. None of these

7. The lowest form of Computer language is called

a. BASIC

b. FORTRAN

c. Machine Language

d. COBOL

e. None of these

8. Best Quality graphics is produced by

a. Dot Matix

b. Laser Printer

c. Inkjet Printer

d. Plotter

e. None of these

9. Memory which forgets every thing when you switch off the power is known as

a. Corrupted

b. Volatile

c. Non-Volatile

d. Non-Corrupted

e.None of these

10.The linking of computers with a communication system is called

a. Networking

b. Pairing

c. Interlocking

d. Assembling

e. Sharing

11.The 16 bit Microprocessor means that it has

a. 16 address lines

b. 16 Buses

c. 16 Data lines

d. 16 routes

e. None of these

12. Data going into the computer is called

a. Output

b. algorithm

c. Input

d. Calculations

e. flow chart

13. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network?

a. LAN

b. DSL

c. RAM

d. USB

e. CPU

14. Microsoft Office is

a. Shareware

b.Public domain software

c. Open-sourse software

d. A vertical market application

e. An application suite

15. How many options does a BINARY choice offer

a. None of these

b. One

c. Two

d. it depends on the amount of memory on the computer

e. It depends on the speed of the computer’s processor

16. A collection of program that controls how your computer system runs and processes information is called

a. Operating System

b. Computer

c. Office

d. Compiler

e. Interpreter

17. Computer connected to a LAN (Local Area Network) can

a. run faster

b. go on line

c. share information and /or share peripheral equipment

d. E-mail

e. None of these

18. Information travels between components on the mother board through

a. Flash memory

b. CMOS

c. Bays

d. Buses

e. Peripherals

19. How are data organized in a spreadsheet?

a. Lines & spaces

b. Layers & Planes

c. Height & Width

d. Rows & Columns

e. None

20. The blinking symbol on the computer screen is called the

a. mouse

b. logo

c. hand

d. palm

e. cursor

21. A fault in a computer program which prevents it from working correctly is known as

a. Boot

b. Bug

c. Biff

d. Strap

e. None of these

22. A self replicating program, similar to a virus which was taken from a 1970s science fiction novel by John Bruner entitled the Shockwave Rider is _________

a. Bug

b. Vice

c. Lice

d. Worm

e. None of these

23. A _______ is a bi-stable electronic circuit that has two stable states.

a. Multivibrator

b. Flip-flop

c. Logic gates

d. laten

e. None of these

24. Unwanted repetitious messages, such as unsolicited bulk e-mail is known as

a. Spam

b. Trash

c. Calibri

d. Courier

e. None of these

25.DOS stands for

a. Disk Operating System

b. Disk operating session

c. Digital Operating System

d. Digital Open system

e. None of these

26. Who is the chief of Miocrosoft

a. Babbage

b. Bill Gates

c. Bill Clinton

d. Bush

e. None of these

27. Which of the following are input devices.

a. Keyboard

b. Mouse

c. Card reader

d. Scanner

e. All of these

28. Examples of output devices are

a. Screen

b. Printer

c. Speaker

d. All of these

e. None of these

29. Which of the following is also known as brain of computer

a. Control unit

b. Central Processing unit

c. Arithmatic and language unit

d. Monitor

e. None of these

30. IBM stands for

a. Internal Business Management

b. International Business Management

c. International Business Machines

d. Internal Business Machines

e. None of these

31.___________ translates and executes program at run time line by line

a. Compiler

b. Interpreter

c. Linker

d. Loader

e. None of these

32. ___________ is an OOP principle

a. Structured programming

b. Procedural programming

c. Inheritance

d. Linking

e. None of these

33. COBOL is widely used in _________ applications

a. Commercial

b. Scientific

c. Space

d. Mathematical

e. None of these

34. RAM stands for

a. Random origin money

b. Random only memory

c. Read only memory

d. Random access memory

e. None of these

35. 1 Byte = ?

a. 8 bits

b. 4 bits

c. 2 bits

d. 9 bits

e. None of these

36. SMPS stands for

a. Switched mode Power Suply

b. Start mode power supply

c. Store mode power supply

d. Single mode power supply

e. None of these

37. The device used to carry digital data on analog lines is called as

a. Modem

b. Multiplexer

c. Modulator

d. Demodulator

e. None of these

38. VDU is also called

a. Screen

b. Monitor

c. Both 1 & 2

d. printer

e. None of these

39. BIOS stands for

a. Basic Input Output system

b. Binary Input output system

c. Basic Input Off system

d. all the above

e. None of these

40. Father of ‘C’ programming languagea. Dennis Ritchie

b. Prof Jhon Kemeny

c. Thomas Kurtz

d. Bill Gates

e. None of these

ANSWERS

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a)

6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a)

11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (e) 15. (c)

16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (e)

21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (a)

26. (b) 27. (e) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (c)

31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (a)

36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (a)

English Language Test For Bank PO,Bank Clerk, MBA, CAT, SSC, LIC, NDA, CDS, B Ed, etc.Exam

2008-11-01T01:09:00.000-07:00

English Language Test

[For Bank PO,Bank Clerk, MBA, CAT, SSC, LIC, NDA, CDS, B Ed, etc.]

Idioms & Phrases : Objective Questions

Idioms are Phrases are an important part of the English
Language test in almost all Entrance Exams like Bank PO,Bank Clerk, MBA,
CAT, SSC, LIC, NDA, CDS, B Ed, etc. Idioms and phrases are similar to
"muhavare" that we have in Hindi.

Directions:
In each of the following questions part of sentence is in bold. Four
alternative meanings of the highlited part of the sentence are given below the
sentence. Mark as your answer that alternative meaning which you think is
correct. If none of the first four is correct, mark (5) i.e. none of these as
your answer.

1. In the last few years India has advanced by leaps
and bounds in the industrial sector.

1. Very rapidly

2. Very competently

3. Very slowly

4. Very pathetically

5. None of these

2. The authorities turned a deaf ear to the
demands of the employees.

1. Immediately implemented

2. Agreed to listen to

3. Misrepresented

4. Whole-heartedly agreed to

5. None of these

3. He was in doldrums after the quarrel he
had with his brother.

1. He was jubilant

2. He was in low spirits

3. He was in a financial difficulty

4. He left the house

5. None of these

4. If you pass this difficult examination it will be
a feather in you cap

1. Your parents will be very happy

2. You will get a scholarship for higher studies

3. You will feel proud of it

4. You will get a very good job

5. None of these

5. Tell me plainly who broke the mirror, do not beat
about the bush.

1. Pretend to be unaware of the matter

2. Try to impress me with your arguments

3. Put any blame on others

4. Approach the matter in a round about way

5. None of these

6. Some people have a habit of wearing their heart
on their sleeve.

1. saying something which is not to be taken seriously

2. exposing their innermost feelings to others

3. avoiding being friendly with others

4. always trying to gain advantage over others

5. wasting their time on unnecessary details

7. I raked my brains to solve this difficult problem.

1. I read number of books

2. I consulted several people

3. I used my commonsense

4. I subjected my mind to hard thinking

5. I brainwashed several experts

8. He was a king who ruled his subjects with a high
hand.

1. sympathetically

2. kindly

3. democratically

4. conveniently

5. oppressively

9. It is a matter of gratification for me that he has turned
a new leaf.

1. begun a different mode of life

2. proved to be a worthy person on his job

3. decided to use a different strategy to solve the problem

4. accepted the new job that was offered to him

5. started using his intelligence

10. He is a plain, simple and sincere man, he will always call
a spade a spade.

1. be outspoken

2. help needy person

3. stand by his friends and relatives

4. sacrifice his life for others

5. put up a simple dress

11. It was such a strange affair that I could not make
head or tail of it.

1. tolerate it

2. face it

3. remember it

4. believe it

5. understand it

12. He is temporarily in charge of the company and is trying
to feather his nest.

1. bring order and discipline in the company

2. raise the image of the company

3. act for his own future benefits

4. diversify the product of the company

5. practice his own brand of management philosophy

13. Those who make no bones about such
actions face a tough oppostion.

1. do without hesitation

2. make no plan

3. waste no time

4. invite no comments

5. None of these

14. Mrs B is known as a shoplifter in a
Mumbai commercial center.

1. smuggler

2. a thief in the guise of a customer

3. buyer of all new things

4. daily visitor

5. None of these

15. The people in north India are known for keeping
open house.

1. never locking it

2. not worrying about its security

3. offering hospitality to everyone

4. keeping it well ventilated

5. None of these

Directions (Q 16-20):
In each of the following questions an idiomatic expression and its four possible
meaning are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and
mark the number of that meanings as your answer on the answer sheet. If you do
not find any correct answer, mark ‘5′, i.e. none of these as your
answer.

16. To make clean breast of

1. to gain prominence

2. to praise oneself

3. to confess without reserve

4. to destroy before it blooms

5. None of these

17. To end in smoke

1. to make completely understand

2. to ruin oneself

3. to excite great applause

4. to overcome some one

5. None of these

18. To leave someone in the lurch.

1. to come to compromise with someone

2. constant source of annoyance to someone

3. to put someone at ease

4. to desert someone in his difficulties

5. None of these

19. To cry wolf

1. to listen eagerly

2. to give false alarm

3. to turn pale

4. to keep off starvation

5. None of these

20. A man of straw

1. a man of no substance

2. a very active person

3. a worthy fellow

4. an unreasonable person

5. None of these

ANSWERS

1. (1) 2. (5) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4)

6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (5) 9. (1) 10. (1)

11. (5) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (3)

16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (1)

Forthcomming competitive exams 2008 -09

2008-11-01T00:00:00.001-07:00

Forthcomming competitive exams 2008 -09

EXAMINATION 2008

Delhi Judicial Service Exam (Pre)-2008 (Nov. 2)

Delhi Metro rail corporation Junior Engineers (Electronics/Electrical/Mechanical and Civil)(Nov.2)

S.S.C. CPO Sub-Inspectors Examination, 2008 (Nov. 9)

N.C.E.R.T National Talent Search Examination, 2009 (Class VIII) (Nov. 16)

Uttar pradesh means-cum-merit scholarship 2008-09 examination (Class VIII) (Nov. 16)

Madhya Pradesh means-cum-merit scholarship 2008-09 examination (Class VIII) (Nov. 16)

State Bank of India (Main) Examination , 2008 (Nov. 30)

S.S.C. Section Officer (Audit) Examination -2008 (Nov. 30)

Bank of Baroda Clerical Cadre Exam 2008 (Nov. 30)

Indian Air Force Airmen Group ‘Y’ Trades Exam. (Nov.)

Bank of Baroda Agriculture officer Recruitmnent examination 2008 (Dec. 12, 2008)

SSC Tax Assistant Examination ,2008 (Dec. 14)

Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Officers Cadre and Non-Teaching Posts Examination (Dec. 14,2008)

RAS/RTS (Pre.) Examination, 2008 (Dec. 21)

Rastriya Millitary School Common Enterance Test (Class VI) (Dec. 21,2008)

CSIR-UGC Examination (NET) (Dec. 21,2008)

Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary officers Examination 2008 (Dec. 21,2008)

EXAMINATION 2009

Madhya Pradesh State Service Examination , 2008 (Jan 11, 2009)

Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Examination, 2009 (Class IX) (Feb. 8, 2009) (Closing Date : 30 Dec., 2008)

Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission (PT) Examination 2008 (Feb. 1, 2009 )

RPSC Teacher Grade -II Competitive Examination ,2008 (Feb 2009)

All India Pre Medical/Dental Entrance Examination 2009 (April 5,2009)

I.I.T. Combined Enterance Examination -2009 (April 12,2009)

NDA & NA Exam (I), Examination 2009 (April 19,2009)

Rajasthan Accounts officer, Junior Accounts Officers and Tehsil Revenue Accounts direct Recruitment Combined Examination -2008 (April- May 2009)

UPSC Preliminary Examination 2009 (May 17,2009)

NCERT National Talent Search Exam -2009 Class VIII (Second Term) ( May 10, 2009)

Special Class Railway Apprentice (SCRA) Examination 2009 (July 26,2009)

NDA & NA Exam (II), Examination 2009 (August 30,2009)

Model Paper For Bank PO Reasoning Ability

2008-11-01T00:00:00.000-07:00

Model Paper For Bank PO Reasoning Ability

1. ‘Captain’ is related to a ‘Team’ in the same way as ‘Director’ is related to

(1) Supervisor

(2) Employee

(3) Organisation

(4) Union

(5) Customer

2. Find the odd one out of the following options

(1) Aunt

(2) Child

(3) Father

(4) Niece

(5) Relation

3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahendra , Rajesh said. "The father of his sister is the husband of my wife’s mother". How is Rajesh related to Maheendra?

(1) Brother

(2) Brother-in-law

(3) Father-in-law

(4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

4. If ‘fork’ is called ‘plate’, ‘plate’ is called ‘knife’, ‘knife’ is called ‘jug’, ‘jug’ is called ‘glass’, ‘glass’ is called ‘cup’ and ‘cup’ is called ‘fork’, by what do we cut fruit?

(1) spoon

(2) jug

(3) glass

(4) saucer

(5) none of these

5. If ‘a’ is substituted by 26,’B’ by 25 and so on up to ‘Z’ which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY’?

(1) 33

(2) 40

(3) 37

(4) 73

(5) None of these

6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?

(1) JOENQF

(2) JMCPQD

(3) JOEPSF

(4) HMCNQD

(5) None of these

7. Gautami is elder to Seema but not to Deepika. Gitika is younger than Deepika. No one is elder to Binita. Who is youngest of them all?

(1) Seema

(2) Gautami

(3) Gitika

(4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry?

(1) Mahesh

(2) Kamal

(3) Raman

(4) Harry

(5) Cannot be determined

9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with ‘T’ and without repeating any letter?

(1) Three

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) None

(5) None of these

Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence:

A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y ə J11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number?

(1) One

(2) Two

(3) Three

(4) Five

(5) None of these

12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed?

(1) 5

(2) 4

(3) 7

(4) 8

(5) None of these

13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?

(1) Two

(2) Five

(3) Four

(4) Three

(5) None of these

14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?

(1) #

(2) 7

(3) U

(4) 9

(5) None of these

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

(1) G$M

(2) K9Q

(3) ?D7

(4) 2MU

(5) PCI

16. In a certain code language’ In ba pe’ means ‘he has won’,'le ki ba’ means ‘she has lost’ and ‘in se pe’ means ‘he always won’. Which word in that language means ‘he’?

(1) in

(2) pe

(3) se

(4) Data not sufficient

(5) None of these

17. X is Y’s brother. S is T’s mother and X’s aunt. How is T related to X?

(1) Sister

(2) Cousin

(3) Aunt

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters?

(1) TNAVERSBO

(2) TNVARESBO

(3) NTAVERSBO

(4) VANTRESBO

(5) None of these

19. If 1 is coded as Ś, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671?

(1) ? + % « # Ś

(2) ? + % Ś # «

(3) ? + « % # Ś

(4) Ś # « % + ?

(5) None of these

20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE?

(1) SWORN: NSOWR

(2) FUNDS: FSDUN

(3) GLAZE : EGZAL

(4) LOWER: RLEWO

(5) None of these

Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions:

Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel.

(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.

(ii) Aman who visits ‘Go’ advertises neither soap nor computers.

(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates.

(iv) No girl advertises soap.

(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice

21. Who advertises watches?

(1) Deepa

(2) Kamal

(3) Aman

(4) Priyanka

(5) None of these

22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect?

(1) Go-watch

(2) Come-computer

(3) Go-soap

(4) Come-soap

(5) Come-watch

23. Which channel does Kamal visit?

(1) Go

(2) Fun

(3) Come

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true?

(1) Jitu advertises soap

(2) Jitu advertises watches

(3) Kamal advertises computers

(4) Kamal works for Fun

(5) None of these

25. What will Jitu advertise?

(1) Chocolates

(2) Watches

(3) Computers or watches

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar?

(1) 3 ½ hours

(2) 2 ½ hours

(3) 4 ½ hours

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language?

(1) One

(2) Two

(3) Four

(4) Three

(5) None of these

28. Find the odd one out

(1) 2

(2) 7

(3) 11

(4) 13

(5) 9

29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters?

(1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT

(3) BDEHLKQT

(4) BDEJMLQT

(5) None of these

30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the

number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers.

(1) 9

(2) 21

(3) 17

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these’.

Letters

M Q I N E Y U G R

Numeric Codes

2 5 3 7 1 8 4 6 9

Conditions:

(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as Ś.

(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %.

(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?

31. ENIMY

(1) 1%28

(2) ?732?

(3) 17328

(4) ?7328

(5) None of these

32. GENIR

(1) ?173?

(2) 6%39

(3) 6%79

(4) 61739

(5) None of these

33. QUERI

(1) 5%93

(2) ?413?

(3) ?4139

(4) ?419?

(5) None of these

34. EINUM

(1) 1%72

(2) 0%42

(3) 1374?

(4) 1%43

(5) None of these

35. UNGRE

(1) Ś769 Ś

(2) 4769 Ś

(3) 47691

(4) Ś7691

(5) None of these

Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.

Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.

Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.

Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.

Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow.

36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink

Conclusions:

I. Some ink are pencils.

II. All ink are lead.

37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs.

Conclusions:

I. Some ACs are ovens.

II. No. AC is oven.

38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds.

Conclusions:

I. Some planes are clouds.

II. Some clouds are birds.

39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice.

Conclusions:

I.. Some sweets are spice.

II. No spice is salt.

40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes.

Conclusions:

I. Some plastics are clothes.

II. Some plastics are papers.

Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:

Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

41. How is ‘cricket’ written in a code language?

I. ‘Dinesh play cricket’ is written as ‘do si ha’.

II. ‘play cricket now’ is written as ‘ha si ma’.

42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P?

I. P is older than M and N but not O.

II. L is older than O.

43. When is Rahul’s birthday?

I. Rahul and Shivani are twins.

II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year.

44. What is the strength of the class?

I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.

II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top.

45. How far does Shruti live from the school?

I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina’s house which is 4 kms. From thee school.

II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti’s house.

Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:

972 526 487 359 251

46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?

(1) 359

(2) 972

(3) 526

(4) 487

(5) 251

47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?

(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) None of these

48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?

(1) None

(2) Two

(3) One

(4) Three

(5) All five

49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?

(1) 251

(2) 359

(3) 487

(4) 526

(5) 972

50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?

(1) 972

(2) 526

(3) 487

(4) 251

(5) 359

Answers

1. (3) 2. (5) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2)

9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (5)

16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (5) 21. (3) 22. (4)

23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (5) 29. (2)

30. (5) 31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (4) 4. (5) 35. (1) 36. (1)

37. (3) 38. (5) 39. (2) 40. (5) 41. (4) 42. (5) 43. (2)

44. (1) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (5)

GENERAL SCIENCE : EXPECTED QUESTIONS

2008-10-31T04:31:00.000-07:00

GENERAL SCIENCE : EXPECTED QUESTIONS

1. How many carbon atoms are there in one molecule of methane (chemical formula CH4?)

a. 1

b. 4

c. 5

d. The number cannot be determined from the formula.

2. Which form of matter has a definite volume, but no definite shape?

a. Solid

b. Liquid

c. Gas

d. Plasma

3. Processes of changing a liquid to a gas is called

a. Melting

b. Boiling

c. Vaporization

d. Sublimation

4. An element is determined by the number of

a. Atoms

b. Electrons

c. Neutrons

d. Protons

5. Fluorine F is a

a. Metal

b. Non metal

c. Compound

d. Element

6. State of uranium (U) at 0? c and 1 atm of pressure is

a. Gas

b. Liquid

c. Solid

d. Vapour

7. CaSo4 is named as

a. Calcium carbonate

b. Calcium hydroxide

c. Calcium oxide

d. Calcium sulphate

8. Cobalt is a

a. Halogen

b. Transition metal

c. Alkaline earth metal

d. None of these

9. What term describes the concentration of a solution in moles per litter?

a. Molarity

b. Osmosis

c. Molality

d. Diffusion

10. The Ideal gas law is a combination of Boyle’s law, Charle’s law and Avogadro’s law .What is the Ideal gas law?

a. PV=NRT

b. PE=mgh

c. F=ma

d. V=IR

11. Which of these values signifies the greatest temperature?

a. 1 degree Kelvin

b. 1 degree Rankin

c. 1 degree Fahrenheit

d. 1 degree Celsius

12. What is the abbreviation THEL stands for

a. Tactical high energy laser

b. Titanium harmonic emergent laser

c. Thermabaric harmonic emergent light

d. Thermo baric high energy light

13. Why are recoilless guns recoilless?

a. Their barrels are open at both ends.

b. They are loaded with missiles not cannon balls

c. They are not placed an wheels

d. They are made up of very heavy metal

14. Which statement is true about airplanes?

a. To dive, ailerons are down

b. To dive, elevators are down

c. To dive, elevators are up

d. To dive, ailerons are up

15. Taxonomy of vertebrate divides fishes in to which two basic groups?

a. Jawed and jawless

b. Gilled and non-gilled

c. Mammalian and non-mammalian

d. Nematodes and non-nematodes

16. What makes almost 99% of the visible Universe?

a. Quasars

b. Nitrogen

c. Plasma

d. Solids

17. What do we call cells with a nucleus?

a. Prokaryotic

b. Eukaryotic

c. Mitochondrial

d. Golgi

18. What does the prefix’ achy-‘’ means?

a. Too fast

b. Too slow

c. Too loud

d. Too soft

19. A doctor says you need a CBC.What is he talking about?

a. An enema

b. A vacation

c. A medication

d. A blood test

20. In preparation for a blood test, the lab slip says you have to be NPO for 8 hours prior to test, what do you have to do?

a. Sleep for 8 hours

b. Exercise for 8 hours

c. Lie flat in bed for 8 hours

d. Do not take anything by mouth

21. What is the exact value of the `Pi’?

a. 3

b. 22/7

c. Impossible to calculate

d. 3.14

22. What is the smallest prime number?

a. 2

b. 144

c. 1

d. 3

23. What is the only number with no reciprocal?

a. Pi

b. 0

c. 1

d. -1

24. How fast is a mile a minute?

a. Speed of the fastest human runner

b. 60 yards an hour

c. 60 kilometre an hour

d. 60 miles an hour

25. Yhrium

a. xe

b. Y

c. V

d. W

Answers

1. a 2. b 3. c 4. d 5. b

6. c 7. d 8. b 9. a 10. a

11. d 12. a 13. a 14. b 15. a

16. c 17. b 18. a 19. d 20. d

21. c 22. a 23. b 24. d 25. b

RRB Allahabad Sr. Clerk Exam., 2008 Solved Paper

2008-10-27T05:28:00.000-07:00

RRB Allahabad Sr. Clerk Exam., 2008 Solved Paper

(Held on 12-10-2008)

1. Trasfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called

(A) Advection

(B) Convection

(C) Conduction

(D) Radiation

Ans (A)

2. Which of the following revers is referred to as "Dakshin Ganga"

(A) Krishna

(B) Godavari

(C) Mahanadi

(D) Cauvery

Ans (B)

3. The clouds float in atmosphere because of their low-

(A) Temperature

(B) Viscosity

(C) Pressure

(D) Density

Ans (D)

4. Which one is the first atomic plant established in India?

(A) Kaiga

(B) Tarapur

(C) Narora

(D) Kota

Ans (B)

5. Who presides over the meeting of the council of ministers?

(A) The prime Minister

(B) The President

(C) Cabinet secretary

(D) Lok Sabha Speaker

Ans (A)

6. What is the minimum age required to become Prime Minister of India?

(A) 18 Years

(B) 21 Years

(C) 25 Years

(D) 35 Years

Ans (C)

7. Which of the following gases is used in the artificial ripening of fruits?

(A) Acetylene

(B) Ethylene

(C) Methane

(D) Ethane

Ans (B)

8. The light waves are -

(A) Electric Waves

(B) Magnetic Waves

(C) Electromagnetic Waves

(D) Electrostatic Waves

Ans (C)

9. Which of the folowing process produce Hydrogen gas?

(A) Electrolysis of water

(B) Passing of steam over red hot iron

(C) Reaction of Zinc with Hydrochloric acid

(D) All of these

Ans (D)

10. The hydraulic brakes used in automobiles is a direct application of -

(A) Archmedes' Principle

(B) Pascal's Law

(C) Bernoulli's Theorem

(D) Faraday's Law

Ans (B)

11. Which of the following planet orbits around the sun in background direction from east to west?

(A) Earth

(B) Mercury

(C) Venus

(D) Jupiter

Ans (B)

IAS (UPSC) MAINS GENERAL STUDIES PAPER (2007)

2008-10-25T04:06:00.000-07:00

IAS (UPSC) MAINS GENERAL STUDIES PAPER (2007)

GENERAL STUDIES - Paper- I

Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should attempt all question strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

1. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words): 30

(a) What was the character of social religious reforms in the 19th Century and how did they contribute to the national awakening in India?

(b) The crisis of the colonial order during 1919 and 1939 was directly linked to the constitutional reforms, disillusionment and militant anti-colonial struggles. Elucidate.

2. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 150 words each) : 15x2 = 30

(a) What are the salient features of the Government of India Acts of 1858 and 1909?

(b) Do you think Mahatma Gandhi's support to Khilafat Movement had diluted his secular credentials? Give your argument based on the assessment of events.

(c) Evaluate the contribution of revolutionary terrorism represented by Bhagat Singh to the cause of India’s Struggle of independence.

3. Write about the following (not 20 words each) : 2x15 = 30

(a) Age of Sangam Literature

(b) Bhakti

(c) Ashtadhyayi of Panini

(d) Charvakas

(e) Ajivikas

(f) Gandhara Art

(g) Mlechchas

(h) Lingayats

(i) Megasthenes

(j) R. C. Dutt

(k) Nagarjunakonda

(1) Pastoralism

(m) Rudramadevi

(n) Sati

(0) Ramanuja

4. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 125 words each) : l0x2=20

(a) Explain how the Himalayan and the Tibetan highlands play an important role in the development of the South West monsoon.

(b) Technological changes have brought in a major shift in the use of roads as transport corridors in India. How far do you agree with this view?

(c) Explain the nature and causes of growing slum problems in the metropolitan cities of India.

5. Write notes on the following (in about 20 words each): 2 x 5= 10

(a) Special Economic Zone (SEZ)

(b) Inceptisol

(c) Jarawas

(d) Indira Point

(e) Causes of Chambal Ravines

6. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words) : 30

(a) What is a Constitution? What are the main sources of the Indian Constitution?

(b) Bring out the differences between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy. Discuss some of the measures taken by the Union and State Governments for the implementation of the Directive Principles of State Policy.

7. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words): 30

(a). What is regionalism ? In which way regionalism has affected the Indian Polity.

(b). what are the Main determination of voting behavior in India?

8. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 150 words each): 15x2 = 30

(a) What are the exceptions when the President of India is not bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers?

(b) What is pro tem Speaker?

(e) Under what circumstances, Parliament may legislate on State subjects?

9. Answer the following questions (in about 20 words each): 2 x 5 = 10

(a). What is criminalization of politics?

(b). How president of India elected?

(c). what is casting vote?

(d). what is the difference between council of Minister and Cabinet?

(e). what is the importance of Right to constitutional remedies?

10. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words): 30

(a). what were the main recommendations of the Platform for Action (PFA) adopted at the Beijing Women Conference 1995?

(b) Discuss the steps to get rid of child labour in India.

11. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 125 words each): l0x2=20

(a) What is stealth technology?

(b) Differentiate between Natural and Cultural heritage.

(c) What is value-based politics?

12. Write notes on any two of the following (in about 125 words each) : I0x2=20

(a) Integrated Child Services (lCDS) Development

(b) Prime Minister's 5-point agenda for India's development as a knowledge society

(c) The Lokpal Bill.

13. Write short notes on the following ( in about 20 words each ) 2 x 5 = 10

(a) Yakshagana

(h) PACE.

(c) Footloose Industries

(d) The Statue of Liberty

(e) Genome

GENERAL STUDIES

aper- II

Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should attempt all question strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question

1. Answer any two of the following (answer to each question should be in about 150 words): 15x2=30

(a) Indo-Russian Defence Co-operation

(b) India's response, to political crisis In Bangladesh

(c) Elaborate on India's Nuclear Doctrine

2. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 wordS): 2x5= I 0

(a) SAFTA

(b) India and East Asia Summit (EAS)

(c) Shanghai Cooperation Organization, (S.C.O.)

(d) Panchsheel in India's Foreign Policy

(e) Relevance of NAM

3. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words) : 2x5=10

(a) Pravasi Bhartiya Bima Yojana, 2006

(b) Indian All-Women Contingent to Liberia

(c) Madheshis in Nepal

(d) Know India Programme (KIP)

(e) Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs

4. Answer anyone of the following (in about 250 words): 30

(a). What is Dumping? Evaluate the remedial measures taken by Government of India vis-à-vis WTO provisions regarding dumping.

(b) Comment on the relationship between credit availability and agricultural growth in India.

5. Answer any two of the following (answer to each question should be in about 150 words )

(a). What is the meaning and aim of social forestry ? What are the main weakness noticed in social forestry programme?

(b). Bring out the main objective of Rastriya Krishi Bima Yojana. The scheme is being implemented by which agency.

(c). Explain Mega Food park Scheme of Government of India.

6. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words ) : 2x15 = 30

(a) Explain the term Merit Goods

(b) What is Cheap Money?

(c) What is Countervailing Duty?

(d) What is Hot Money?

(e). Explain the Concept Trickle Down Theory

(f) What is Stagflation?

(g) What is Engel's Law?

(h) Meaning of CCIL

(i) What is Administered Price?

(j) What is Venture Capital?

(k) Explain the term Balance on Current Account

(I) What is Consolidated Fund?

(m) What is Budget Deficit?

(n) Explain the term Most Favored Nations

(0) Meaning of Capital- Output Ratio

7. Write about any two of the following (in about 150 words each): 15x2=30

(a) Impact of globalization on state system and its institutions

(b) SAARC Summit 2007

(c) The UN conference on Environment and Development (The Earth Summit)

8. Write about the following (in about 20 words each): 2x5 = 10

(a) G-8 Summit 2007

(b) Hyde Act of 2006

(c) Global Governance

(d) Operation Silence

(e) SAARC Human Rights Report 2006

9. Write about the following by expanding and explaining the objectives (in about 20 Words each): 2x5=10

(a) ICT4D

(b) BEMs

(c) IAEA

(d) BIMSTEC

(e) ECJ

10. Answer any one of the following in about 250 words: 30

(a). Explain the phenomenon of ozone depletion, its cause and effects . What efforts are needed to reduce it.

(b). what do you understanding by the term ‘biodiversity’? Examine the cause and consequence of degeneration of biodiversity?

11. Answer any two of the following (answer for each question should be in about 150 words) : 15x2=30

(a) What are the alterative fuels available for the transport sector? Discuss their characteristics, advantages 'and disadvantages in their utilization.

(b) Explain the objectives and the current achievements of human genome project.

(c) Discuss the missile technology initiatives undertaken by India.

12. Answer all the five (in about 20 words each) : 2x5=10

(a) What is firewall ? (b) What is mal ware ?

(c) What do the following stand for?

(i) MPEG (ii) ISP

(iii) HTML (iv) ASCII

(d) What is Root kit?

(e) What is computer architecture?

13. (a) In the year 2000 out of a total 1750 workers of a factory 1200 workers were members of a union. The number of women employed was 200 of which 175 did not belong to the union. In 2005 , the number of union workers increased to 1510 of which 1290 were men . On the other hand the number of non union workers fell down to 208 of which 180 were men. 8

(i) Put the above information in a proper table with title.

(ii) Calculate the increase in the percentage of the female workers belonging to the union in that five year period.

(b) The marks obtained by 20 students in a subject are given: 8 32, 62, 72, 46, 52, 74, 53, 42, 58, 61, 59, 46, 36, 76, 58, 77, 62, 48, 36, 39. Form a frequency distribution table with class interval 10. Also Draw the Histogram.

14. (a) For the following distribution of statistics test grades, construct a frequency polygon and answer the following: 8

(i) How many test grades are greater than 87 ?

(ii) What percentage of test grades are greater than 83?

(iii) What percentage of test grades are lower than72? '

(iv) What percentage of test grades are between 72 and 79 (inclusive )

Test Grades:

73, 92, 57, 89, 70, 95, 75, 80, 47, 88, 47, 48, 64, 86, 79, 72, 71, 77, 93, 55, 75, 50, 53, 75, 85, 50, 82, 45, 40, 82, 60, 89, 79, 65, 54, 93, 60, 83, 59

(b). Construct an appropriate diagram to show the following data of a university: 8

Course No. of Students

Engineering 440

Arts 220

Agriculture 120

Home Science 80

Economic 60

Total = 920

15. (a) What do you understand by 2

(i) Primary and secondary data

(ii) Data classification

(iii) Measures of central tendency

(iv) Characteristics of good average

(b) The mean wage of 100 laborers working in a factory running two shifts of 60 and 40 workers respectively is Rs. 38. The mean wage of 60 labourers working in the morning shift is Rs 40. Find the mean wage of 40 Labourers working in the evening shift. 2

(c) The mean age of a group of 5 boys is 16 years. Another boy joins the group and then the mean age of the group becomes 18 years. How old is the newcomer? 2

(d) Arithmetic means of two completely different sets of values may be same. When extreme values are taken into consideration, the arithmetic mean is largely affected. Is it merit or demerit of arithmetic mean and give reasons for your statement? 2

Reasoning Test : Bank PO

2008-10-24T04:24:00.000-07:00

Reasoning Ability Test

Bank PO, Clerk, MBA ,CAT, RRB TC, S.S.C.,

1. Shanti Bhushan walked 10 m towards West from his house. Then he walked 5 m turning to his left. After this he walked 10 m turning to his left and in the end he walked 10 m turning to his left. In what direction is he now from his starting point?
(A) South
(B) North
(C) East
(D) West
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. Suyash walks 100 m from his house towards North. From there he goes 100 m towards West. Here is the house of Shivam. From there they both goes to the market which is in the South-West direction from Shivam's house. If the market is in the West of Suyash's house, then how far is the market from Suyash's house?
(A) 100 m
(B) 150 m
(C) 300 m
(D) 400 m
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
3. Rohit goes 5 km towards North from a fixed point. Then he goes 3 km after turning to his right. After this he goes 5 km turning to his right. In the end he goes 4 km after turning to his left. How far and in what direction is he now from the fixed point?
(A) 4 km, West
(B) 7 km, East
(C) 9 km, East
(D) 7 km, West
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. How many 7's are there in the following number series; which are preceded by an even
number but not followed by any odd?
437523721367542742712276572
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (B)
5. How many 5's are there in the following number series, which are preceded by 3 but not followed by 2 ?
5243546785325735642354752358356
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (E)
6. How many 3's are there in the following number series, which are preceded by an odd number but not followed by an even number?
3425315213673182785391345235435
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (C)

7. If the numbers which are divisible by 4, from 4 to 84 are written in reverse order then which number will be at the 7th place?
(A) 60
(B) 28
(C) 20
(D) 32
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. How many numbers are there from 5 to 100, which are divisible by 3 and either unit or tenth digit or both include 3 ?
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) Less than 6
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. How many 4's are there in the following number-series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by 7 ?
23423425473243192547547234529546
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (A)

10. If the numbers between 4 to 90, which are divisible by 5, and which contain 5 in the unit, tenth or both place, are removed, then how many numbers divisible by 5 will be left?
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 18
(D) 12
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. Rajan remembers that his elder brother was born between 13th and 16th April while his mother remembers that he was born after 14th April and before 17th April. If the statements of both are considered correct then on which date of April he was born ?
(A) 14
(B) 16
(C) 14 or 15
(D) 15
(E) 15 or 16
Ans : (D)

12. How many numbers are there from 1 to 60, which are divisible by 3 and either unit digit or tenth digit or both include 3 ?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C)15
(D) More than 15
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

13. If the following numbers are written in descending order then what will be the middle digit of the middle term ?
723, 789, 595, 659, 713, 785, 689
(A) 1
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 3
(E) 2
Ans : (A)

14. A bus for Bombay leaves after every forty minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 10.45 a.m. At what time did the enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger ?
(A) 10.05 a.m.
(B) 9.55 a.m.
(C) 10.35 a.m.
(D) 10.15 a.m.
(E) 10.25 a.m.
Ans : (D)

15. If the numbers between 1 to 65 and divisible by 4 are written in reverse order then which of the following numbers will be at l0th place?
(A) 44
(B) 24
(C) 40
(D) 28
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

16. How many 6's are there in the following number-series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by 7 ?
56765649276743568649567
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

17. How many 4's are there in the following number-series which are preceded and followed by only an even number?
6432483154232464813242645
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

18. How many 2's are there in the following number series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by an odd number? .
13523545245226245267823527524
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) More than four
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

19. How many 3's are there in the following series, which are not preceded by an odd number but followed by 4 ?
15323465347834923456343534
(A) None
(B) Two
(C) Four
(D) One
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

20. How many B's are there in the following letter-series, which are followed by G but G is not be followed by S ?
BGSQBRNOBGNSQLTBGQTDBGUWXBGF
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

21. How many D's are there in the following letter-series, which are preceded by K and followed by Q ?
KDRMBSKDQKRBLKDQMQDKEFQDK
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

22. If the numbers from 4 to 55 which are divisible by 3 and also the numbers which contain 3 as one of the digits, are removed, then how many numbers will be left?
(A) 24
(B) 23
(C) 22
(D) 25
(E) None of these.
Ans : (D)

23. At a railway station a man said to Swapna, "A train leaves for Muzaffar Nagar after every 1.45 hours. The last train has already left 50 minutes ago and the next train will leave at 5.15 p.m." At what time this information was given to Swapna ?
(A) 3.30
(B) 2.40
(C) 4.10
(D) 3.50
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

24. A trader said to his servant Ramu, "I leave for my house after every 2.40 hours from his shop. I have already gone to his house 55 minutes ago and next time. I shall go to my house from the shop at 8.15 p.m." At what time this information was given to the servant?
(A) 6.30
(B) 6.00
(C) 6.15
(D) 4.40
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. A doctor said to his compounder, "I go to see the patients at their residence after every 3.30 hours. I have already gone to the patient 1.20 hours ago and next time I shall go at 1.40 p.m." At what time this information was given to the compounder by the doctor?
(A) 10.10
(B) 11.30
(C) 8.50
(D) 11.20
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. Samiksha Adhikari Exam Solved Paper

2008-10-21T01:22:00.000-07:00

Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. Samiksha Adhikari Exam., 2006

(Held on 10-08-2008)

General Studies

1. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of—

(A) Finance Ministry

(B) Finance Commission

(D) NABARD

Ans : (B)

2. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology Institute been established ?

(A) Agra

(B) Mirzapur

(D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar

Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ?

(A) Bank of Baroda

(B) Punjab National Bank

(D) UCO Bank

Ans : (C)

4. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers—

(A) all children in the age group 3–10

(B) all children in the age group 4–8

(D) all children in the age group 6–14

Ans : (D)

5. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing—

(A) employment to rural women folk

(B) employment to urban women folk

(D) providing training and skills to women

Ans : (D)

6. Mixed economy means—

(A) existence of both small and big industries

(B) existence of both private and public sectors

(D) none of the above

Ans : (B)

7. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(D) 9

Ans : (C)

8. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ?

(A) Japan

(B) Denmark

(D) Switzerland

Ans : (A)

9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—

List-I (Place)

(a) Vishakhapatnam

(b) Muri

(d) Panki

List-II (Industry)

1. Automobile

2. Ship-building

3. Fertiliser

4. Aluminium

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 3 4 1

(B) 2 4 1 3

(D) 2 4 3 1

Ans : (B)

10. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ?

(A) ICICI Bank

(B) HDFC Bank

(D) UTI Bank

Ans : (C)

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—

List-I (Mineral Production)

(a) Mineral Oil

(b) Gypsum

(d) Bauxite

List-II (State)

1. Orissa

2. Karnataka

3. Gujarat

4. Rajasthan

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 1 4 3

(D) 3 4 2 1

Ans : (D)

12. Consider the following statements—

Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in India promises to meet the future energy demand of the country.

Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (C)

13. Which of the following states has the longest coast line ?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Tamil Nadu

Ans : (A)

14. Which of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?

(A) Dharwar system

(B) Gondwana system

(D) Vindhyan system

Ans : (B)

15. Laterite soil is found in—

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Maharashtra

Ans : (D)

16. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Kirghiz — Central Asia

(B) Masai — West Africa

(D) Eskimos — Greenland

Ans : (B)

17. Chilka lake is situated in—

(A) West Bengal

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(D) Tamil Nadu

Ans : (C)

18. Damodar is a tributary of river—

(A) Ganga

(B) Hugli

(D) Suvarn Rekha

Ans : (B)

19. Sangam Yojana is concerned with—

(A) provision for clean drinking water

(B) provision for cleaning rivers

(D) helping the invalids

Ans : (D)

20. National Dairy Development Board is located in—

(A) Anand

(B) Gandhinagar

(D) Valsad

Ans : (A)

21. Economic Planning is included in the Constitution of India in—

(A) Union List

(B) State List

(D) Special List

Ans : (C)

22. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Kimberley —Diamond

(B) Havana —Meat packing

(D) Sheffield —Cutlery

Ans : (C)

23. Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of—

(A) Lalitpur

(B) Pilibhit

(D) Sonbhadra

Ans : (C)

24. The correct descending order of major states of India in terms of density of population (2001) is—

(A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala

(B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh

(D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala

Ans : (B)

25. The major coffee producing state in India is—

(A) Kerala

(B) Karnataka

(D) West Bengal

Ans : (B)

26. March 24 (2008) was observed as—

(A) World AIDS Day

(B) World Disabled Day

(D) World Tuberculosis (TB) Day

Ans : (D)

27. Which one of the following pairs of Harappan sites and their locations is notcorrectly matched ?

(A) Alamgirpur —Uttar Pradesh

(B) Banawali —Haryana

(D) Rakhigarhi —Rajasthan

Ans : (D)

28. Jivaka, the famous physician of the time of Gautama Buddha, was associated with the court of—

(A) Bimbisara

(B) Chanda Pradyota

(D) Udayana

Ans : (A)

29. After President’s signature on the recommendation of Delimitation Commission, Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies with certain exemptions, will be redefined. Which of the following are exempted ?

1. Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur

2. Assam

3. Nagaland

4. Jharkhand

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (D)

30. The winner of French Open, 2008 (Ladies singles) was—

(A) Dinara Safina

(B) Ana Ivanovic

(D) Svetlana Kuznetsova

Ans : (B)

31. Who among the following was of the view that the Earth revolves round the Sun ?

(A) Aryabhatta

(B) Brahmagupta

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

32. What is the difference (in years) between the Vikrama and Saka eras ?

(A) 57 years

(B) 78 years

(D) 320 years

Ans : (C)

33. Who among the following rulers paid attention to the water resource management in Girnar region some centuries before the Christian era ?

1. Mahapadma Nanda

2. Chandragupta Maurya

3. Ashoka

4. Rudradaman

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1, 2

(B) 2, 3

(D) 2, 3, 4

Ans : (D)

34. Ptolemy Philadelphus with whom Ashoka had diplomatic relations was the ruler of—

(A) Cyrene

(B) Egypt

(D) Syria

Ans : (B)

35. The inscription belonging to which one of the following dynasties confirms the tradition that Lumbini was the birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha ?

(A) Maurya

(B) Sunga

(D) Kushana

Ans : (A)

36. Which literature had its classical age under Krishnadeva Raya, the famous Vijayanagara king ?

(A) Konkani

(B) Malayalam

(D) Telugu

Ans : (D)

37. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—

(A) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq

(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

(D) Sikandar Lodi

Ans : (B)

38. The department of Public Works was established for the first time by—

(A) Alauddin Khalji

(B) Balban

(D) Iltutmish

Ans : (C)

39. Who were the ‘Nayanars’ ?

(A) Saivites

(B) Saktas

(D) Sun worshippers

Ans : (A)

40. Who among the following kings had strong leaning towards Jainism ?

(A) Dasratha

(B) Brihadratha

(D) Huvishka

Ans : (C)

41. Which one of the following rulers had granted Diwani to the East India Company ?

(A) Farrukhsiyar

(B) Shah Alam-I

(D) Shujaud Daula

Ans : (C)

42. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of—

(A) Lord Minto

(B) Lord Hardinge

(D) Lord Reading

Ans : (B)

43. The Durand line demarcated India’s border with—

(A) Afghanistan

(B) Burma

(D) Tibet

Ans : (A)

44. What was the rate of exchange between the Copper Dam and Silver Rupaya under Sher Shah ?

(A) 16 : 1

(B) 32 : 1

(D) 64 : 1

Ans : (C)

45. Arrange the following events of Akbar’s reign in a chronological order :

1. Abolition of Jazia

2. Construction of Ibadatkhana

3. Signing of Mahzar

4. Foundation of Din-i-Ilahi

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4

(B) 2, 3, 4, 1

(D) 3, 4, 1, 2

Ans : (A)

46. After the arrest of Gandhiji during the Salt Satyagraha, who took his place as leader of the movement ?

(A) Abbas Tyabji

(B) Abul Kalam Azad

(D) Vallabhbhai Patel

Ans : (A)

47. Which one of the following revolutionaries involved in Kakori case had escaped the trial ?

(A) Sachindra Nath Bakshi

(B) Mukundi Lal

(D) Manmath Nath Gupta

Ans : (A)

48. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to ‘Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’ ?

(A) Ras Behari Bose

(B) Batukeshwar Datt

(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad

Ans : (C)

49. Which one of the following revolutionaries was executed in the Gorakhpur Jail ?

(A) Ramprasad Bismil

(B) Rajendra Lahiri

(D) Ashfaqullah Khan

Ans : (A)

50. Whose sustained efforts led to the establishment of the first women’s university in Bombay ?

(A) Dayaram Gidumal

(B) D. K. Karve

(D) Mahadev Govind Ranade

Ans : (B)

51. Which one of the following is the most urbanized states of India according to 2001 Census ?

(A) Gujarat

(B) West Bengal

(D) Kerala

Ans : (C)

52. According to 2001 Census the least densely populated states of India in ascending order are—

(A) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Sikkim

(B) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Sikkim

(D) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Nagaland

Ans : (C)

53. Among the following which fruit is a rich source of iron ?

(A) Jamun

(B) Karonda

(D) Guava

Ans : (A)

54. Vitamin which promotes wound healing is—

(A) Vitamin B

(B) Vitamin C

(D) Vitamin D

Ans : (C)

55. Bauxite is an ore of—

(A) Aluminium

(B) Boron

(D) Silver

Ans : (A)

56. Which of the following methods is used to determine the age of the earth ?

(A) Carbon dating

(B) Germanium dating

(D) All the above

Ans : (C)

57. Name the gas which under normal conditions produces pollution in the atmosphere ?

(A) Carbon monoxide (CO)

(B) Carbon dioxide (CO₂)

(D) Oxygen (O₂)

Ans : (A)

58. Electron-volt is the unit for—

(A) energy

(B) charge of electron

(D) power

Ans : (A)

59. An atom bomb is based on the principle of—

(A) nuclear fission

(B) nuclear fusion

(D) none of these

Ans : (A)

60. Titan is the largest moon or satellite of—

(A) Mars

(B) Venus

(D) Saturn

Ans : (D)

61. The most toxic metal pollutant of the automobile exhaust is—

(A) Copper

(B) Lead

(D) Mercury

Ans : (B)

62. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus ?

(A) Diphtheria

(B) Malaria

(D) Hepatitis

Ans : (D)

63. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by—

(A) 50%

(B) 100%

(D) 225%

Ans : (D)

64. The term ‘Siamese Twins’ is used for—

(A) twins in which there is one male and one female

(B) twins in which both are females

(D) twins physically attached to each other

Ans : (D)

65. Every solar eclipse takes place on—

(A) full moon only

(B) new moon only

(D) neither (A) nor (B)

Ans : (B)

66. The headquarter of which of the following is correctly given ?

(A) UNO—London

(B) WTO—Geneva

(D) FAO—Chicago

Ans : (B)

67. White bud of maize is caused due to deficiency of—

(A) N

(B) Zn

(D) Mn

Ans : (B)

68. A number is 20 more than its 20%. The number is—

(A) 20

(B) 25

(D) 80

Ans : (B)

69. The train which was started on April 14, 2008 between Kolkata (India) and Dhaka (Bangladesh) has been named—

(A) Sadbhavna Express

(B) Shanti Express

(D) Aman Express

Ans : (C)

70. Thailand’s Ponsana Boonsak won the men’s singles of the India open Grand Prix Badminton championship held in Hyderabad in April 2008. In the final he defeated—

(A) Anand Pawar

(B) Arvind Bhat

(D) Zhendong Guo

Ans : (C)

71. Indian Institute of Remote sensing is located at—

(A) Ahmedabad

(B) Dehradun

(D) None of the above

Ans : (D)

72. The winner of the 62nd Santosh Trophy, held in June 2008, was—

(A) Karnataka

(B) West Bengal

(D) Punjab

Ans : (D)

73. Who among the following was the Chief Guest on the occasion of Republic Day, 2008 ?

(A) British Prime Minister Gardon Brown

(B) French President Nicolas Sarcozy

(D) Russian President Vladimir Putin

Ans : (B)

74. In April 2008 fourth convention of Nuclear safety was held in—

(A) Vienna

(B) London

(D) Rome

Ans : (A)

75. Who among the following received Padma Vibhushan Award of 2008 ?

1. Madhuri Dixit

2. Ratan Tata

3. Sachin Tendulkar

4. Viswanathan Anand

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1, 2

(B) 2, 3

(D) 2, 3, 4

Ans : (B)

L.I.C. Apprentice Development officers Recruitment Exam., 2008 Solved Paper

2008-10-18T00:00:00.000-07:00

L.I.C. Apprentice Development officers Recruitment Exam., 2008

(Held on 06-07-2008)

General Knowledge

1. Who is the highest Law officer of a State ?

(A) Attorney General

(B) Secretary General Law Department

(D) Solicitor General

Ans : (C)

2. The place for Amritsar was given by the Mughal Emperor Akbar to—

(A) Guru Amar Das

(B) Guru Hari Kishan

(D) Guru Tegh Bahadur

Ans : (C)

3. Which section of IPC is applicable in a case of death due to negligence ?

(A) 304 Part-I

(B) 304 Part-II

(D) 307

Ans : (C)

4. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?

(A) Sabarigiri Project —Gujarat

(B) Sharavathy Project —Karnataka

(D) Balimela Project —Orissa

Ans : (A)

5. The Olympic Flame symbolises—

(A) Speed, perfection and strength

(B) Unity among various nations of the world

(D) Sports as a means of securing harmony among the nations

Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following deals with economic offences ?

(A) TADA

(B) MISA

(D) COFEPOSA

Ans : (D)

7. The earth rotates on its axis from—

(A) East to West

(B) West to East

(D) South to North

Ans : (B)

8. A Cricket match is being telecasted live from Delhi. If the match commences at 10 a.m. at What time would viewers in London have to tune in their sets ?

(A) 10 a.m.

(B) 4·30 a.m.

(D) 10 p.m.

Ans : (B)

9. ‘The United Kingdom’ consists of England and—

(A) Northern Ireland, Scotland and Wales

(B) Northern Ireland, Palma and Iceland

(D) Scotland, Sardinia and Wales

Ans : (A)

10. Which of the following is the publisher of ‘Employment News’ ?

(A) Indian Express Group

(B) Times of India Group

(D) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

Ans : (D)

11. The states of India having common border with Myanmar are—

(A) Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh

(B) Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura, Meghalya

(D) Assam, Manipur, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh

Ans : (A)

12. In which of the following states ‘Koyana Hydro Electric Power Project’ is located ?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Orissa

Ans : (B)

13. The scientist associated with the success of Green Revolution is—

(A) V. R. Rao

(B) J. C. Bose

(D) Norman Borlaug

Ans : (D)

14. The largest coal deposit in India is in—

(A) Damodar Valley

(B) Satpura Valley

(D) Brahmani Valley

Ans : (A)

15. National Highway-2 connects—

(A) Srinagar and Leh

(B) Varanasi and Kanyakumari

(D) Delhi and Kolkata

Ans : (D)

16. The national centre for production of bio-fertilizers is at—

(A) Hyderabad

(B) Ghaziabad

(D) Dehradoon

Ans : (B)

17. Which of the following satellites helps to telecast T.V. Network Programmes all over the country ?

(A) APPLE

(B) Rohini

(D) INSAT–1B

Ans : (D)

18. Which Sports Association of Indian lifted the ban from its players ‘foreign tours’ ?

(A) BCCI

(B) All India Tennis Federation

(D) All India Football Federation

Ans : (A)

19. In which state ‘Kanya Vidyadhan Yojana’ is operational ?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Madhya Pradesh

(D) Haryana

Ans : (A)

20. With which country U.N.O. has an agreement for ‘Oil for food’ ?

(A) Kuwait

(B) Iran

(D) Venezuela

Ans : (C)

21. Where will World Cup Football, 2010 be played ?

(A) South Africa

(B) Mexico

(D) Canada

Ans : (A)

22. Who has declared as ‘Miss India World, 2007’ ?

(A) Puja Gupta

(B) Amrita Pathi

(D) Sarah Jane Dias

Ans : (D)

23. Electron was discovered by—

(A) Rutherford

(B) Bohr

(D) Ramsay

Ans : (C)

24. Which film won the Best Picture in the 79th Annual Academy Award (Oscar Award) 2007 conferred in Feb. 2007 ?

(A) The Departed

(B) The Queen

(D) The Last King of Scotland

Ans : (A)

25. In which country of the world, the largest Buddhist temple is located ?

(A) Japan

(B) Indonesia

(D) India

Ans : (B)

U.P. P.C.S. Combined Lower Subordinate (Pre.) Exam Fully Solved (Held on 25-05-2008)

2008-10-17T01:47:00.000-07:00

U.P. P.C.S. Combined Lower Subordinate (Pre.) Exam

(Held on 25-05-2008)

Indian History

1. The officer responsible for the safe custody of land records during the Gupta period was known as—

(A) Dhruvadhikarana

(B) Karanika

(D) Shaulkika

Ans : (B)

2. The Prakrit text Gaudavaho describes the deeds of—

(A) Bhaskaravarman

(B) Isanavarman

(D) Yasovarman

Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following refers to ‘Pushyabhuti’ as the founder of the Vardhana dynasty ?

(A) Kadambari

(B) Harshacharita

(D) Yuan-Chwang

Ans : (B)

4. The first Gupta ruler to assume the title of the ‘Maharajadhiraja’ was—

(A) Srigupta

(B) Chandragupta I

(D) Ghatotkacha

Ans : (B)

5. Which one of the following statements about Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien’s travel in India is not correct ?

(A) He came to India during the reign of Chandragupta II

(B) His object was to visit the holy places of Buddhism

(D) He visited whole India and went back to his country by the land route

Ans : (C)

6. Which was the first work to recognise the payment of officers by grants of land ?

(A) Kautilya’s Arthasastra

(B) Indica of Megasthenese

(D) Harsacharita of Bana

Ans : (C)

7. Below are given the pairs of names of the Dharmashastra-writers and their patrons. Indicate the incorrect match—

(A) Ballalasena – Dharmapala

(B) Hemadri – Yadava Mahadeva

(D) Mitra Misra – Virasinha Bundela

Ans : (A)

8. Who among the following was celebrated with the title of ‘Gangai-Konda’ ?

(A) Rajaraja I

(B) Rajendra I

(D) Kulottunga I

Ans : (B)

9. Which Chola emperor received a letter on golden leaves from the Burmese king Kyanzittha ?

(A) Rajaraja I

(B) Rajendra I

(D) Rajadhiraja I

Ans : (C)

10. Who among the following boldly stood for the sacrificial vedic tradition and opposed the theory of Sanyasa ?

(A) Kumarila

(B) Ramanuja

(D) Yamunacharya

Ans : (A)

11. In the case of a man dying without a son, whom Yajnavalkya places first in order of succession ?

(A) Wife

(B) Daughters

(D) Brothers

Ans : (A)

12. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given

below—

Assertion (A) : The Gahadawalas had friendly relations with the Cholas.

Reason (R) : A fragmentary Gahadawala inscription has been found incised below an inscription of Kulottunga I.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are ture, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

13. Who among the following Europeans was first to come to India to establish trade relations with their country ?

(A) Dutch

(B) British

(D) French

Ans : (C)

14. Which of the following gives the administrative divisions of the chola kingdom in the correct descending order ?

(A) Mandalam, Valanadu, Kurram

(B) Mandalam, Nadu, Kottam

(D) Nadu, Kurram, Taniyur

Ans : (C)

15. Which one of the following was the primary village assembly in the chola village administration ?

(A) Nadu

(B) Sabha

(D) Mahasabha

Ans : (C)

16. Which one of the following states was a milch-cow for the British ?

(A) Hydrabad

(B) Punjab

(D) Avadh

Ans : (D)

17. Match the authors with their books—

(a) Subramanya Bharti

(b) Bhai Vir Singh

(d) Michael Madhusudan Dutt

1. Gitanjali

2. Meghnad Badh Kavya

3. Rana Surat Singh

4. Kuyil Pattu

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 3 1 4

(B) 4 2 1 3

(D) 4 3 2 1

Ans : (C)

18. “The emergence of British power in India is from the battle of Buxar.” Who made this statement ?

(A) Sir Stephen

(B) Ramsay Muir

(D) Dr. R. C. Majumdar

Ans : (B)

19. In 1757 Siraj-ud-Daulah attacked British factory at—

(A) Dhaka

(B) Calcutta

(D) Murshidabad

Ans : (B)

20. Which Governor of Madras presidency made treaty of Mangalore with Tipu ?

(A) Eyercoote

(B) Stephenson

(D) Lord Macartany

Ans : (D)

21. What was the bone of contention between Nizam Ali, the ruler of Hyderabad and the English ?

(A) Masulipatanam

(B) Karnataka

(D) The Northern Sarkars

Ans : (C)

22. The statement “we have crippled our enemy without making our friends too formidable.” is associated with—

(A) Fourth Anglo-Mysore war

(B) Third Anglo-Mysore war

(D) First Anglo-Mysore war

Ans : (B)

23. Who among the following Mughal emperors, granted permission to trade free of tax in the territories of Bengal, Hyderabad and Gujarat to the British ?

(A) Muhammad Shah

(B) Aurangzeb

(D) Farrukh Siyar

Ans : (D)

24. Where did the British East India Company open its first factory in India ?

(A) Masulipatanam

(B) Surat

(D) Mumbai

Ans : (B)

25. The Whitley commission was concerned with—

(A) Labour

(B) Education

(D) Reorganisation of civil services

Ans : (A)

26. Match the following treaties with the years of their conclusion—

(a) Treaty of Srirangapatnam

(b) Treaty of Sangoli

(d) Treaty of Rajghat

1. 1792 2. 1806

3. 1816 4. 1784

Find the correct answer from code given below—

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 3 2 1 4

(B) 2 3 1 4

(D) 1 3 4 2

Ans : (D)

27. Whom did Sir Charles Napier replace as British Resident of Sindh ?

(A) Alexander Burnier

(B) James Outram

(D) Sir Eyre Coote

Ans : (B)

28. When was the East India Company brought under the parliamentary control ?

(A) 1773

(B) 1784

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

29. Which one of the following Acts created ‘Board of control’ ?

(A) Regulating Act, 1773

(B) Pitt’s India Act, 1784

(D) Act of 1833

Ans : (B)

30. Which one of the following historians has written about the nature of the movement of 1857 that “It was neither first nor national nor a war of independence.” ?

(A) T. R. Holmes

(B) R. C. Majumdar

(D) G. B. Mallison

Ans : (B)

31. Which one of the following pairs

is not correctly matched ?

(A) Jhansi —Laxmi Bai

(B) Gwalior —Tatya Tope

(D) Allahabad —Kunwar Singh

Ans : (D)

32. The official historian of the movement of 1857 was—

(A) S. N. Sen

(B) R. C. Majumdar

(D) V. D. Savarkar

Ans : (A)

33. Match the following associations with their presidents—

(a) British Indian Association, 1851

(b) Deccan Association, 1852

(d) British Indian Madras Association, 1850

1. Raja Radhakant Dev

2. Gopal Hari Deshmukh

3. C. Y. Mudaliar

4. Jamshedji Jijabhai

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 1 4 3

(B) 1 2 4 3

(D) 1 2 4 3

Ans : (D)

34. Who had chaired the Indian Education commission in 1882 ?

(A) Macaulay

(B) Sadler

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

35. Who was the founder of Seva Sadan in Bombay ?

(A) Baharamji Malabari

(B) Shiva Narrain Agnihotri

(D) B. K. Jayakar

Ans : (A)

36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using codes given below—

List-I

(a) Laxmi Bai

(b) Tatya Tope

(d) Bahadur Shah

List-II

1. Deported to Rangoon

2. Fled to Nepal

3. Captured and executed

4. Killed in battle

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 3 2 1

(B) 2 4 3 1

(D) 4 2 3 1

Ans : (A)

37. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ?

1. Brahmo Samaj – Swami Brahmanand

2. Dev Samaj – Swami Satyanand Agnihotri

3. Arya Samaj – Swami Dayanand

4. Ram Krishna Mission – Swami Ramkrishna Paramhansa

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 4

Ans : (B)

38. Which one of the following journals had conducted a bitter campaign against the abolition of the practice of Sati ?

(A) Sambad Kaumadi

(B) Bangadoot

(D) Samachar Chandrika

Ans : (A)

39. In which of the following places ‘Jatiya Sarkar’ a parallel government was formed during the Quit India Movement ?

(A) Satara

(B) Tamaluk

(D) None of the above

Ans : (B)

40. Which one of the following was elected as president of Indian National Congress after the resignation of Subhas Chandra Bose ?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya

(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

Ans : (A)

41. The party which observed ‘Black day’ on 3 July, 1947 against partition of India was—

(A) Indian National Congress

(B) Forward Bloc

(D) Communist Party of India

Ans : (C)

42. Who was the author of ‘Pather Dabi’ a novel which glorified the path of violent revolution and which was banned by the British Government ?

(A) Premchand

(B) Sharatchandra Chatterji

(D) Ajai Ghosh

Ans : (B)

43. The newspaper ‘Man in India’ was edited by—

(A) Surjit Chadra Sinha

(B) Ashok Kumar Sarkar

(D) Shiv Prasad Gupta

Ans : (A)

44. Who edited “Sahid Bhagat Singh : Dastavejo Ke Aine Mein” ?

(A) Irfan Habib

(B) Malavinder Jit Singh

(D) Amalesh Tripathi

Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following writers was not associated with ‘economic nationalism’ ?

(A) R. C. Dutt

(B) G. V. Joshi

(D) Annie Besant

Ans : (D)

46. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Dadabhai Naoroji founded East India Association in London.

Reason (R) : He wanted to influence the British Public Opinion.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false

Ans : (A)

47. Which one of the following was not a member of the Hunter committee set up to enquire into the Jallianwala bagh massacre ?

(A) Lord Hunter

(B) General Dyer

(D) Sir Thomas Smith

Ans : (B)

48. Which one of the following was not a slave of Mohammad Ghori ?

(A) Ikhtiyaruddin Bhakhtiyar Khalji

(B) Tajuddin Yaldauz

(D) Shamsuddin Iltutmish

Ans : (D)

49. Who among the following writers has described the seven fold division of the Hindu society ?

(A) Ibn Khordadbah

(B) Abu zaid-Alhasan

(D) Utbi

Ans : (A)

50. The foreign invader who plundered somnath temple was—

(A) Mohammad Ghori

(B) Masud III

(D) Mahmud Ghaznavi

Ans : (D)

51. The first hand account of conquest of India by Mohammad Ghori and the history of newly established Turkish kingdom is found in which of the following texts ?

(A) Faqra-i-Muddabir

(B) Qamil-ut-Tawarikha

(D) Kitab-ul-Yamini

Ans : (C)

52. Select from the following options, the Arab invader who defeated Dahira, the king of Sindh in 712 A.D.—

(A) Budail

(B) Muhammad-bin-Qasim

(D) Ubaidullah

Ans : (B)

53. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Diwan-i-Mushtakharaj – Alauddin Khalji

(B) Diwan-i-Amirkohi – Mohammad Tughlaq

(D) Diwan-i-Riyasat – Balban

Ans : (D)

54. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Alauddin built the siri fort.

Reason (R) : He wished to safeguard Delhi from Mongol invasions.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false

Ans : (A)

55. The statement “India is not Arabia, it is not practically feasible to convert it into Darul Islam.” is associated with—

(A) Iltutmish

(B) Balban

(D) Mohammad-Bin-Tughlaq

Ans : (A)

56. With which sultan of Delhi do you associate the compilation of Kingship theory and principles of administration called ‘vassayya’ ?

(A) Iltutmish

(B) Balban

(D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

Ans : (B)

57. Which of the following is correct ?

(A) The ministers during the Sultanate period were appointed and dismissed by the Khalifa

(B) The ministers during the Sultanate period were appointed and dismissed by the Ulema

(D) The ministers during the Sultanate period were appointed and dismissed by the Sultan

Ans : (D)

58. Which one of the following works of Amir Khusrau deals with the military expeditions of Alauddin Khalji ?

(A) Nuh Siphar

(B) Khajain-ul-Futuh

(D) Quairanus Sadain

Ans : (B)

59. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Bahlol’s theory was ‘Kingship is kinship’.

Reason (R) : Bahlol respected Afghan tribal sentiments.

In the context of the above statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false

Ans : (A)

60. What was the religion of the king Krishnadeva Raya ?

(A) Vaishnavism

(B) Shaivism

(D) Buddhism

Ans : (A)

61. In which capacity thousands of women were employed in the empire of Vijayanagar ?

(A) Accountants

(B) Royal bodyguards

(D) All of the above

Ans : (D)

62. Select the correct chronological order of following reformers of the medieval Bhakti movements by using code given below—

1. Namdeva

2. Vallabhacharya

3. Ramananda

4. Kabir

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4

(B) 2, 3, 4, 1

(D) 4, 1, 2, 3

Ans : (C)

63. Who was the founder of Pushti marg ?

(A) Chaitanya Mahaprabhu

(B) Vallabhacharya

(D) Yamunacharya

Ans : (B)

64. Who was the founder of Qalandariya sect ?

(A) Skeikh Badiuddin Shah

(B) Kutubuddin Kalandar

(D) Abdul Aziza Makki

Ans : (D)

65. In which Hindu Kingdom of medieval India the image of deity Tirupati or Lord Venkateshvara has been depicted on its gold coins ?

(A) The Vijayanagar Empire

(B) The Kingdom of Hoyasalas of Dwarasamudra

(D) The Kingdom of Yadavas of Devagiri

Ans : (A)

66. Who built the city of Nagalapura ?

(A) Bukka I

(B) Devaraya I

(D) Virupaksha

Ans : (C)

67. In which language did Babur wrote his autobiography ?

(A) Farsee

(B) Arabi

(D) None of the above

Ans : (C)

68. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Akbar was the greatest among the Mughal emperors and one among the

great rulers of India.

Reason (R) : He was an ambitious ruler.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

69. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists—

List-I (Sufi order)

(a) Qadiriya order

(b) Firdausiya order

(d) Suhrawardia order

List-II (Sufi Saints)

1. Khwaja Nizamuddin

2. Shaikh Shahabuddin

3. Shaikh Sharfuddin Yahya Manairi

4. Shaikh Abdul Qadir Gilani

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 4 3 1

(B) 3 2 4 1

(D) 4 3 1 2

Ans : (D)

70. To whom did Shaikh Nizamuddin Auliya bestow the title of ‘Ain-i-Hind (Mirror of India) ?

(A) Shaikh Sirajuddin Usmani

(B) Shaikh Nasiruddin Chirag Dehlavi

(D) Shaikh Bahauddin Zakaria

Ans : (C)

71. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R)—

Assertion (A) : Mughal emperors from Humayun to Jahangir were obsessed with ‘Nur’ or light.

Reason (R) : They considered kingship as a light emanating from God to king.

In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (A)

72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the code given below the lists—

List-I (Years)

(a) 1527 A.D.

(b) 1540 A.D.

(d) 1575 A.D.

List-II (Events)

1. Battle of Tukarai

2. Battle of Talikota

3. Battle of Kanwah

4. Battle of Kannauj

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(D) 4 1 3 2

Ans : (C)

73. When was the famous ‘Treaty of Chittor’ signed during the reign of Jahangir ?

(A) 1605 A.D.

(B) 1610 A.D.

(D) 1620 A.D.

Ans : (C)

74. Which Mughal emperor wrote a will and instructed his sons, that they continue Asad Khan as the vazir ?

(A) Akbar

(B) Jahangir

(D) Aurangzeb

Ans : (D)

75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer, using the code given below the lists—

List-I (Year)

(a) 1627 A.D.

(b) 1659 A.D.

(d) 1674 A.D.

List-II (Events)

1. Shivaji crowned himself at Raigarh and assumed title of Maharaja Chhatrapati.

2. Escape of Shivaji from Agra.

3. Birth of Shivaji.

4. Afzal, Khan was killed by Shivaji.

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 3 4 1

(B) 3 4 2 1

(D) 1 3 4 2

Ans : (B)

76. Which one of the following statements isnot correct about the Mughal paintings ?

(A) The Mughal school of painting represents one of the most significant phases of Indian art.

(B) Akbar patronized both Persian and Indian painters.

(D) Jahangir had also taken much interest to promote the Mughal painting.

Ans : (C)

77. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

Emperor Name

(A) Babur : Zahiruddin Muhammad

(B) Humayun : Nasiruddin Muhammad

(D) Jahangir : Muhiuddin Muhammad

Ans : (D)

78. What was ‘Paga’ in the Maratha administration ?

(A) Independent soldiers

(B) State dependant soldiers

(D) Soldiers of other country

Ans : (B)

79. Which one of the following Harappan sites provides the evidence of the fire-alters ?

(A) Alamgirpur

(B) Banavali

(D) Kunal

Ans : (C)

80. Which of the following Harappan city sites had bipartite division – high citadel and lower town ?

1. Harappa

2. Mohenjodaro

3. Kalibangan

4. Surkotada

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (C)

81. Which one of the following wives of Shivaji became sati ?

(A) Puttabai

(B) Sakawarbai

(D) None of the above

Ans : (D)

82. Which one of the following statements isnot correct about Shivaji ?

(A) He was simple and religious in his personal life

(B) He did not force any Muslim to embrace Hinduism

(D) He organised Marathas against Mughal empire

Ans : (C)

83. Who among the following priests, led the confederacy of the ten kings against Sud-asa ?

(A) Visvamitra

(B) Vasishtha

(D) Gritsamada

Ans : (A)

84. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below—

List-I

(a) Rigveda

(b) Yajurveda

(d) Atharvaveda

List-II

1. Gopatha Brahamana

2. Satapatha Brahmana

3. Aitareya Brahmana

4. Tandya Brahmana

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 4 3 1

(B) 3 2 4 1

(D) 1 3 2 4

Ans : (B)

85. Which one of the following statements about the Indus Civilization is correct ?

(A) The authors of the Indus Valley Civilization had no trade relations with countries outside India

(B) The authors of the Indus Valley Civilization did not worship Gods and Goddesses

(D) The Indus Valley people were not familiar with cotton

Ans : (C)

86. Which of the Vedic Gods is described as supervising the moral order ?

(A) Indra

(B) Varuna

(D) Vishnu

Ans : (B)

87. What was main contribution of Jainism to Indian Philosophy ?

(A) The doctrine of rebirth

(B) The doctrine of Syadvada

(D) The doctrine of Brahma is nirguna

Ans : (B)

88. Arrange in a chronological sequence the following varsavasas of Gautam Buddha during the first decade of his enlightenment—

1. Kausambi

2. Rajagriha

3. Risipattana

4. Vaisali

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(A) 2, 1, 3, 4

(B) 3, 4, 2, 1

(D) 3, 2, 4, 1

Ans : (D)

89. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below—

List-I (Jain Tirthankara)

(a) Ajit Nath

(b) Vimal Nath

(d) Parshava Nath

List-II (Birth Place)

1. Kashi

2. hastinapur

3. Kampilya

4. Ayodhya

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 4 1

(D) 4 3 2 1

Ans : (D)

90. The Jain Tirthankara Mahavira has been mentioned in the early Buddhist Literature as—

(A) Nigantha Nataputta

(B) Vardhamana

(D) Videhaputta

Ans : (A)

91. Which of the following inscriptions proves Chandragupta Maurya’s conquest of Saurashtra ?

(A) Ashoka’s rock edict of Shahbajgarhi

(B) Ashoka’s rock edict of Mansehra

(D) Junagarh rock edict of Rudradamana

Ans : (D)

92. The Syrian ambassador who visited the court of Bindusara was—

(A) Dionysus

(B) Daimachus

(D) Athenaus

Ans : (B)

93. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below—

List-I (Ashoka’s contemporary rulers)

(a) Antiyoka

(b) Antikini

(d) Turamaya

List-II (Countries where they ruled)

1. Cyrene

2. Egypt

3. Macedonia

4. Syria

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 4 2 3

(B) 2 1 3 4

(D) 4 3 1 2

Ans : (D)

94. Which of the following is not a text of Buddhism ?

(A) Jatakas

(B) Acharangasutra

(D) Sumangalavilasini

Ans : (B)

95. Who among the following has been considered a Lady Tirthankara in the Svetambara

tradition ?

(A) Sumatinatha

(B) Santinatha

(D) Kunthunatha

Ans : (C)

96. Which of the following inscriptions of the time of Kanishka indicates that his empire was extended upto Champa in the east ?

(A) Sarnath Inscription

(B) Saheth-Maheth inscription

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

97. Who captured the famous ‘silk route’ of central Asia ?

(A) Ashoka

(B) Kanishka

(D) Harsha

Ans : (B)

98. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given

below—

Assertion (A) : Bacchanalian scenes are also found in Mathura art.

Reason (R) : The Mathura artists were aware of the Gandhara art tradition.

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are ture, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (D)

99. What was the function of the officer known as ‘Gopa’ during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya ?

(A) He was incharge of a Janapada

(B) He was incharge of a group of villages

(D) He was the president of a municipal board

Ans : (B)

100. Which of the following Mauryan pillars were surmounted by lion capital ?

1. Koluha Pillar

2. Lauriya Nandangarh Pillar

3. Sanchi Pillar

4. Sarnath Pillar

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

Codes :

(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 2 and 3

Ans : (A)

S.S.C. Statistical Investigators Grade-III and Compiler Exam., 2008

2008-10-17T00:00:00.001-07:00

S.S.C. Statistical Investigators Grade-III and Compiler Exam., 2008

(Held on 15-06-2008)

General Awareness

1. The headquarters of the Asian Development Bank is located at—

(A) Bangkok

(B) Singapore

(D) Manila

Ans : (D)

2. Explicit cost means—

(A) Payments made for short period

(B) Payments made for long period

(D) Payments made for productive resources

Ans : (D)

3. The most important aspect affecting cropping pattern is—

(A) The social consideration

(B) The economic consideration

(D) The geographical consideration

Ans : (D)

4. Which is the most mobile factor of production ?

(A) Land

(B) Labour

(D) Organisation

Ans : (C)

5. Cottage and small scale industries are desirable in Indian Economy from the point of view of—

(A) Income generation

(B) Large scale production

(D) Employment generation

Ans : (D)

6. Which one of the following item is entered as credit in the balance of Payment Account ?

(A) Imports from abroad

(B) Purchase of assets from abroad

(D) Purchase of gold from abroad

Ans : (C)

7. When there are economies of scale, it means that an increase in production must be accompanied by—

(A) A reduction in total cost of production

(B) A reduction in average cost of production

(D) An increase in profitability of producers

Ans : (B)

8. G-77 stands for a group of 77—

(A) Capitalist countries

(B) Socialist countries

(D) Developing countries

Ans : (D)

9. Changes in Bank Rate affects—

(A) The market rate of interest

(B) Select industries for investments

(D) The cash reserve ratios

Ans : (A)

10. Total costs is a combination of—

(A) Fixed cost and variable cost

(B) Money cost and real cost

(D) Past cost and future cost

Ans : (A)

11. The present strength of the Rajya Sabha is—

(A) 245

(B) 250

(D) 300

Ans : (A)

12. The electoral college for election to the office of the President consists of elected members of the—

(A) Lok Sabha

(B) Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha

(D) None of these

Ans : (C)

13. Under which Article of the Constitution the central government can take pre-emptive action to protect any state against external aggression and internal disturbances—

(A) 355

(B) 356

(D) 358

Ans : (A)

14. When did India become a Republic ? On—

(A) August 15, 1947

(B) November 26, 1949

(D) December 10, 1946

Ans : (C)

15. Who was the first Indian Scholar who treated Mathematics as a distinct subject ?

(A) Brahma Gupta

(B) Aryabhatta

(D) Ramanujam

Ans : (B)

16. In Buddhism a Chaitya is also known as—

(A) Residence of the Monks

(B) Hall of Worship

(D) Congregation Hall

Ans : (D)

17. When were Goa, Diu and Daman annexed into the Indian Union ?

(A) 1947 A.D.

(B) 1961 A.D.

(D) 1954 A.D.

Ans : (B)

18. The Maldives are the islands of this ocean—

(A) Atlantic Ocean

(B) Indian Ocean

(D) Arctic Ocean

Ans : (B)

19. Shiva is worshipped as Nataraja in a famous temple in Tamil Nadu, where ?

(A) Tanjore

(B) Madurai

(D) Chidambaram

Ans : (D)

20. Australia is particularly known for—

(A) Wheat Mills and Wheat Cultivation

(B) Sheep rearing and Mining

(D) Jute Mills and Jute Cultivation

Ans : (B)

21. Lime is sometimes applied to soil in order to—

(A) Increase the acidity of the soil

(B) Decrease the alkalinity of the soil

(D) Increase the alkalinity of the soil

Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following depletes the ozone layer ?

(A) CFC’s

(B) Carbon dioxide

(D) Nitrogen dioxide

Ans : (A)

23. The turgid condition of a cell is due to—

(A) Loss of water

(B) Entry of water

(D) Entry of solutes

Ans : (B)

24. In the blood group ‘O’ the antigen present is—

(A) A

(B) B

(D) No antigen

Ans : (D)

25. The time-period of a pendulum on the moon—

(A) Decreases

(B) Increases

(D) Is zero

Ans : (B)

26. The human ear is sensitive to sound intensity ranging from—

(A) 200 to 300 db

(B) 300 to 400 db

(D) 0 to 180 db

Ans : (D)

27. A solar eclipse occurs when the—

(A) Sun comes between the earth and the moon

(B) Moon comes between the sun and the earth

(D) Sun comes between the earth and the star

Ans : (B)

28. The Angstrom unit measures—

(A) Temperature

(B) Electric current

(D) Wavelength

Ans : (D)

29. We can hold a pen due to the—

(A) Force of gravity

(B) Force of friction

(D) Work done by our muscles

Ans : (B)

30. One calorie of energy is equivalent to—

(A) 0·42 joule

(B) 4·2 joule

(D) 420 joule

Ans : (B)

31. Metals, when exposed to electromagnetic radiations, emit—

(A) Electrons

(B) Protons

(D) Alpha particles

Ans : (A)

32. Which one of the following is a super cooled liquid ?

(A) Mercury

(B) Bromine

(D) Ice-cream

Ans : (C)

33. Haemoglobin is an Iron-containing—

(A) Nucleic acid

(B) Protein

(D) Hormone

Ans : (B)

34. Green flames given out by the burning of firework is due to the presence of—

(A) Sodium

(B) Barium

(D) Calcium

Ans : (B)

35. Which one of the following is not a function of protein ?

(A) Building up of tissues

(B) Catalysing some reactions

(D) Repair of torn tissues

Ans : (B)

36. Metal used for galvanising iron is—

(A) Mercury

(B) Aluminium

(D) Zinc

Ans : (D)

37. An example of a synthetic rubber is—

(A) Neoprene

(B) Nylon

(D) Polyester

Ans : (A)

38. The metal which is called Quick Silver is—

(A) Silver

(B) Aluminium

(D) Lead

Ans : (C)

39. What is the tenure of office of the Vice-President ?

(A) Co-terminus with that of the President

(B) Five years

(D) As decided by the Electoral College voting the person

Ans : (B)

40. Who amidst the following Presidents held office for two terms ?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(B) Dr. Radhakrishnan

(D) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

Ans : (A)

41. Which of the following constitutional documents had the most profound influence in creating the Indian Constitution ?

(A) The Government of India Act, 1935

(B) The US Constitution

(D) The UN Charter

Ans : (A)

42. Which of the following produces the widely used antibiotic penicillin ?

(A) An algae

(B) A bacterium

(D) A fungus

Ans : (D)

43. What forms the largest part of most diets ?

(A) Nucleic acid

(B) Proteins

(D) Lipids

Ans : (C)

44. Acid present in Tamarind is—

(A) Citric acid

(B) Acetic acid

(D) Oxalic acid

Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following diseases is caused by a viral infection ?

(A) Typhoid

(B) Cholera

(D) Tetanus

Ans : (C)

46. In which part of India does saffron grow ?

(A) Darjeeling district

(B) Kashmir

(D) Nilgiri Hills

Ans : (B)

47. India is one of the largest producer of which of the following spices ?

1. Black pepper

2. Cardamom

3. Cloves

4. Ginger

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below :

(A) 1 and 3

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 3 and 4

Ans : (C)

48. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right ?

(A) Right to strike

(B) Right against exploitation

(D) Right to freedom of religion

Ans : (A)

49. Who can issue the writs for enforcement of the fundamental rights ?

(A) The District Judge

(B) The Human Rights Commission

(D) The Director General of Police

Ans : (C)

50. What does hail consist of ?

(A) Granular ice

(B) Crystals of ice

(D) Masses of ice in layers one above the other

Ans : (D)