RRB CHANDIGARH SOLVED PAPER

RRB CHANDIGARH SOLVED PAPER

1. If x means −, ÷ means +, + means ÷, − means x then find the value of 13 − 12 ÷ 400 + 20 x 100
(a) 1/760
(b) 76
(c) 176
(d) 186
2. If the numbers divisible by 3 between 14 and 55 (both inclusive) and the numbers with 3 at unit’s place of them are removed then how may numbers will remain?
(a) 24
(b) 23
(c) 22
(d) 25
3. A trader told his servant Shambhu that he left for his home from the shop after every 2 : 40 hours. I left for home 55 minutes earlier and for the next time I will leave for home from my shop at 8 :
15 p.m. At which time did I inform my servant?
(a) 6 : 30
(b) 6 : 00
(c) 6 : 15
(d) 4 : 20
4. Nivedita stops to walk after covering a distance of 10 km to the west. She then turns to the right and walks 8 km. Again she walks 4 km to the right. How far is she from her office?
(a) 18 km
(b) 8 km
(c) 16 km
(d) 10 km
5. Karishma is taller than Kajal. Kajal is taller than Vimal. Ankita is taller than Kajan and Vimal. Which is the tallest?
(a) Karishma
(b) Kajal
(c) Ankita
(d) None of these
6. Radha and Saroj are ranked 10th and 16th respectively in a class of 37 students. What will be their ranks from the bottom in the class?
(a) 28th, 22nd
(b) 27th, 21st
(c) 28th, 20th
(d) 27th, 22nd
7. If ‘A’=26, and SUN = 27, then CAT?
(a) 24
(b) 57
(c) 58
(d) 27
8. A number when divided by three consecutive numbers 9, 11, 13 leaves the remainders 8, 9 and 8 respectively. If the order of divisors is reversed, the remainders will be:
(a) 8, 9, 8
(b) 9, 8, 8
(c) 10, 1, 6
(d) 10, 8, 9
9. Find the multiple of 11 in the following numbers?
(a) 978626
(b) 112144
(c) 447355
(d) 869756
10. Four prime numbers are arranged in ascending order. The product of first three is 385 and that of last three is 1001. The largest prime number is:
(a) 11
(b) 13
(c) 17
(d) 9
11. On dividing a number by 19, the difference between quotient and remainder is 9. The number is:
(a) 370
(b) 352
(c) 361
(d) 371
12. Mohan engaged a servant on the condition that he would pay him Rs. 200 and a uniform after 10 days. The servant served only for 5 days and got Rs. 20 and a uniform. Find the price of the uniform.
(a) Rs. 80
(b) Rs. 120
(c) Rs. 140
(d) Rs. 160
13. If you subtract – 1 from + 1, what will be the result?
(a) 2
(b) -2
(c) 0
(d) 1
14. Find the value of 50 × 8.
(a) 40
(b) 200
(c) 8
(d) 0
15. One litre of water is evaporated from a 6 litre solution containing 4% sugar. The percentage of sugar in the remaining solution is:
(a) 24/5 %
(b) 4 %
(c) 3 %
(d) 10/3 %
16. When water is changed into ice, its volume increases by 9%. If ice changes into water, the
percentage decrease in volume is:
(a) 9%
(b) 10%
(c) 18%
(d) 900/ 109 %
109
17. A watch becomes fast by 5 minutes every day. By what per cent does it become fast?
(a) 50/144 %
(b) 5%
(c) 1/12 %
(d) 5/24 %
18. A bag contains 25 paise. 10 paise and 5 paise coins in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3. If their total value is Rs. 30, the number of 5 paise coins is:
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 150
(d) 200
19. The temperature of a place increases uniformly from 210C to 380C from 9 am to 2 pm. What was the temperature at noon?
(a) 28.50C
(b) 270C
(c) 300C
(d) 320C
20. If 5 men or 9 women can do a piece of work in 19 days; 3 men and 6 women will do the same work in:
(a) 10 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 12 days
(d) 7 days
21. Total area of 64 small squares of a chess board is 400cm2. There is 3 cm wide border around the chess board. What is the length of the side of the chess board?
(a) 17 cm
(b) 20 cm
(c) 26 cm
(d) 23 cm
22. If the radius of a circle is increased to 3 times. Then how many times will its circumference be increased?
(a) 2 times
(b) 1/3 times
(c) 9 times
(d) 3 times
23. A passenger train runs at the rate of 80 kmph. It starts from the station at some time. After 6 hours a goods trains leaves the station. The passenger train overtakes the goods train after 4 hours. The speed of goods train is:
(a) 32 km/h
(b) 50 km/h
(c) 45 km/h
(d) 64 km/h
24. A boat takes half time in moving a certain distance downstream than upstream. What is ratio between rate in still water and rate of current?
(a) 1 : 2
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 1 : 3
25. Two pipes can fill a cistern in 6 minutes and 7 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened alternately for 1 minute each. In what time will they fill the cistern?
(a) 5 minutes
(b) 17/3 times
(c) 45/7 minutes
(d) 5/4
minutes
26. Find the value of 0.0016
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.04
(c) 0.8
(d) 4
27. By what number must 32 be multiplied to make it a perfect square?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 2
Directions (28-30): Fill up the blanks with the appropriate words.
28. Mr. Jagdish is confident _________ his success.
(a) about
(b) of
(c) for
(d) regarding
29. He persisted _________ doing things in a manner in which he had been doing them.
(a) on
(b) at
(c) about
(d) in
30. An exhibition _________ the new trends in computer education was held in Delhi.
(a) into
(b) for
(c) of
(d) on
Directions (31-35): In the following questions choose the word that can be substituted for the given words.
31. A disease which spreads by contact
(a) infection
(b) contagious
(c) contiguous
(d) uxoring
32. A science which studies insects
(a) Entomology
(b) Epistemology
(c) Entymology
(d) Biology
33. That which cann’t be corrected
(a) Ineligible
(b) Ineluctable
(c) Insortable
(d) Incorrigible
34. One who believes easily
(a) sedulous
(b) credible
(c) assiduous
(d) credulous
35. A speech made for first time
(a) simultaneous
(b) drawn
(c) extempore
(d) maiden
Direction (36-39): Write word which is most opposite in meaning of the given word.
36. Obstinate
(a) Hoary
(b) Amenable
(c) Tenable
(d) Tender
37. Pernicious
(a) Salutary
(b) Recondite
(c) Innocuous
(d) Disastrous
38. Radical
(a) Singular
(b) Unusual
(c) Normal
(d) Conservative
39. Mention
(a) Impart (b) Observe
(c) Attend (d) Conceal
Direction (40-42): Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the word.
40. Sedentary
(a) Material (b) Sluggish
(c) Slash (d) Mischief
41. Pertinacious
(a) Stubborn (b) Tremulous
(c) Stupid (d) Stingy
42. Gregarious
(a) Clumsy (b) Pugnacious
(c) Turbulent (d) Saciable
43. In Rajasthan, Mount Abu, famous for Jain temples is known for:
(a) Abu temple (b) Ranakpura temple
(c) Dilwara temple (d) Marble temple
44. The United Nations Organisation was formed on:
(a) October 20, 1945 (b) November 11, 1944
(c) October 24, 1945 (d) June 26, 1946
45. In Vedic literature the meaning of the word ‘Nishk’ was ornament. It was used in Artharva Veda as:
(a) Weapon (b) Agricultural implements
(c) Script
(d) Coin
46. The executive in India is directly responsible to the:
(a) President
(b) Judiciary
(c) People
(d) Legislature
47. The major producer of copper is:
(a) Kerala
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Orissa
(d) Madhya Pradesh
48. Boys scout and Girls Guide movements were formed by:
(a) Charles Andies
(b) General Ramphel
(c) John Quat
(d) Weden Powel
49. In history the Chola rulers are famous for which type of administration?
(a) Central
(b) Urban
(c) State
(d) Village administration
50. Chanakya was known by the name:
(a) Samudragupta
(b) Vishnugupta
(c) Shrigupta
(d) None of these
51. The largest reserve of crude oil is in the country:
(a) Iran
(b) Iraq
(c) Saudi Arab
(d) Kuwait
52. The Jainism propounded the complete knowledge as:
(a) Jin
(b) Ratna
(c) Kaivalya
(d) Nirvana
53. The rotational motion of earth is maximum at the:
(a) North pole
(b) Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Equator
(d) Tropic of cancer
54. Silicon dioxide is used in:
(a) Cement production
(b) Cutting hard precious metals
(c) Glass manufacture
(d) None of these
55. In which of the following chemical energy is converted into electrical energy?
(a) Dynamo
(b) Thermopile
(c) Battery
(d) Atom bomb
56. If the atmosphere is removed from the earth:
(a) Day will lengthen
(b) Night will lengthen
(c) Both will remain same
(d) Both will be equal
57. In Kushana period the maximum development was observed in the field of:
(a) Religion
(b) Art
(c) Literature
(d) Architecture
58. In rice production Indic is ranked in the world
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
59. The brightest star in the sky is:
(a) Proxima Centauri
(b) Bernard
(c) Nebula
(d) Cirius
60. The number of permanent member nations in the UN Security Council is:
(a) 10
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 15
61. From which mine diamond is extracted?
(a) Panna
(b) Golkunda
(c) Jaipur
(d) None of these
62. Like Poland in Europe which state in India is large?
(a) Bihar
(b) Orissa
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra
63. The capital of Vijayanager empire. Hampi was situated on the bank of the river:
(a) Krishna
(b) Pennar
(c) Tungbhadra
(d) Godavari
64. The land shape formed at the drainage site of the Chanbal river is:
(a) Ramp
(b) Rift
(c) Delta
(d) None of these
65. Which of the following rivers passes through Himachal Pradesh?
(a) Sutlej
(b) Jhelum
(c) Ravi
(d) Chenab
66. Rigmies are related to:
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) Africa
(d) America
67. Mettur dam is situated on the river:
(a) Krishna
(b) Cauvery
(c) Narmada
(d) Mahanadi
68. Most abundant element in maximum rocks is:
(a) Silicon
(b) Carbon
(c) Iron
(d) None of these
69. The old name of African country Ghana is:
(a) Abisinia
(b) Congo
(c) Gold Coast
(d) Tanganika
70. Who first deciphered the Ashokan inscriptions?
(a) James Princep
(b) James Williams
(c) John Munro
(d) None of these
71. The foundation of Indian Vedanta philosophy is:
(a) Ram Charit Manas
(b) Mahabharat
(c) Puranas
(d) Upanishad
72. In which Satyagraha movement of Mahatma Gandhi women participated most?
(a) Quit India
(b) Non-cooperation
(c) Salt
(d) Bardoli
73. The noble gas is:
(a) Helium
(b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Hydrogen
74. In which part of the Constitution, the separation of executive and judiciary has been described?
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental rights
(c) Directive principles of state policy
(d) Seventh schedule
75. Who administers the Union Territory?
(a) Council of Ministers
(b) Governor
(c) Former Governor
(d) President
76. The spherical shape of rain drops is due to:
(a) Surface tension
(b) Viscosity
(c) Gravity
(d) Atmospheric pressure
77. Which is not an electric resistant?
(a) Lac
(b) Glass
(c) Charcoal
(d) Ebonite
78. The first black Nobel prize winner of literature in the world is:
(a) Tom Morrison
(b) Luther King
(c) John King
(d) None of these
79. Which of the following planets has the highest period of revolution around the sun?
(a) Mercury
(b) Earth
(c) Mars
(d) None of these
80. The headquarter of Asian Development Bank is in:
(a) Geneva
(b) Manila
(c) Bangkok
(d) Jakarta
81. Which of the following elements is found in free state?
(a) Iodine
(b) Magnesium
(c) Sulphur
(d) Phosphorus
82. In which disease blood does not clot?
(a) Thrombosis
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Pneumonia
(d) None of these
83. The Ajanta caves are situated in:
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) None of these
84. National Codet Corps was established in:
(a) 1948
(b) 1946
(c) 1947
(d) 1950
85. The first Yoga University was established at:
(a) Bodh Gaya
(b) Mumbai
(c) Monghyr
(d) Kolkata
86. The biggest glacier of India is:
(a) Siachin
(b) Yamanotri
(c) Chunhari
(d) Gangotri
87. The number of schedules in Indian Constitution is:
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 13
(d) None of these
88. The Commonwealth games were recently held in:
(a) Britain
(b) Canada
(c) Australia
(d) India
89. Which of the following did not come to India?
(a) Megasthanese
(b) Columbus
(c) Vasco De Gama
(d) Fahein
90. Double fault is related to:
(a) Footbal
(b) Rugby
(c) Tennis
(d) None of these
91. Which of the following countries is the biggest producer of milk?
(a) Pakistan (b) Australia
(c) America (d) India
92. Who is the Indian Mass Universe 2006 in india?
(a) Neha Kapoor
(b) Neha Dhupia
(c) Priyanka Sud
(d) None of these
93. CTPN : DSQM : : MUSK?
(a) NUTL
(b) NTTJ
(c) NTTL
(d) LTRS
94. LO : PK : : IT : ?
(a) GT
(b) SH
(c) MN
(d) FU
95. Which of these is the largest railway zone?
(a) Central Railway
(b) Southern Railway
(c) Eastern Railway
(d) Northern Railway

Answers:

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (d) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (c) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (d) 76. (a) 77. (c) 78. (a) 79. (d) 80. (b)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (c) 86. (a) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (b) 90. (c)
91. (d) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95 (d)

Indian Polity : Objective General Awareness

Indian Polity : Objective General Awareness

FOR FORTHCOMMING EXAMS

SET-1

1. If it is desirable to establish a Presidential form of government in India, the foremost and immediate amendment has to be made affecting the—
(A) System of Judiciary
(B) Composition of the Parliament
(C) Powers of the Executive
(D) Provisions of the Fundamental Rights

2. Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented—
(A) In any court of the country
(B) In the Supreme Court only
(C) In the High Court only
(D) In either Supreme Court of High Court

3. Who amongst the following can be removed without Parliament's resolution?
(A) Governor of a state
(B) Any judge of the Supreme Court
(C) Any judge of a High Court
(D) Chief Election Commissioner

4. If a question asked by a Member of Parliament is a starred one, he will get—
(A) A written answer
(B) An oral answer
(C) Answer in the Zero hour
(D) No answer

5. According to the provisions of the Constitution, which one of the following can be abolished?
(A) Legislative Assembly
(B) Legislative Council
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha

6. Whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, will be decided by the—
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Prime Minister

7. After the general elections a new Lok Sabha is constituted. In its first session, the Speaker is elected. Who presides over this first session?
(A) Ex-Speaker
(B) Ex-Prime Minister
(C) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(D) Oldest member of the House

8. The 'Indian Parliament' comprise of the—
(A) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the President
(C) Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and the Council of Ministers
(D) Lok Sabha and the Council of Ministers

9. In the event of the breakdown of the constitutional machinery of any state, under which one of the following Articles can President's Rule be imposed?
(A) 352
(B) 256
(C) 360
(D) 370

10. Which one of the following has got most effective provisions towards the establishment of socio-economic justice in India?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Directive Principles of the State Policy
(D) Preamble of the Constitution

11. Which one of the following is a national political party?
(A) All India Anna D. M. K.
(B) National Conference
(C) Communist Party of India
(D) All India Forward Block

12. Which of the following is a member of the SAARC ?
(A) Bhutan
(B) Tibet
(C) Myanmar
(D) Malaysia

13. Human Rights Day is observed all over the world every year on—
(A) 24 October
(B) 7 November
(C) 10 December
(D) 25 December

14. Individual liberty is best reflected in a—
(A) Socialist State
(B) Communist State
(C) Welfare State
(D) Fascist State

15. Universal Adult Franchise makes a government—
(A) More responsive
(B) More efficient
(C) More popular amongst the minorities
(D) More stable

16. In Dictorship Executive is responsible to—
(A) An advisory council
(B) The people's representatives
(C) The high administrative officers
(D) No one

17. While casting her vote in any election, a woman exercises her—
(A) Civics right
(B) Social right
(C) Natural right
(D) Political right

18. In India, the states derive their power from the—
(A) People
(B) Constitution
(C) State Assembly
(D) Parliament

19. How many representatives for Vidhan Parishad of U.P. are elected from the teacher's constituency?
(A) 18
(B) 12
(C) 9
(D) 6

20. For removing the Vice President of Indian from his office a resolution is initiated in—
(A) The joint sitting of both the House
(B) The Rajya Sabha
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) Any of the two Houses

21. Which of the following has got a Lt. Governor?
(A) Delhi
(B) Goa
(C) Karnataka
(D) Manipur

22. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights has been ensured to the citizens of India?
(A) To get education
(B) To get employment
(C) To buy and sale property
(D) To form associations or unions

23. By Parliament we mean—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President

24. Who appoints the ad-hoc Chief Justice of a High Court?
(A) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) The President of India
(C) The Governor of the State concerned
(D) The Cabinet at the Centre

25. In the Panchayati Raj system, the 'Panchayat Samiti' is constituted at the—
(A) Village level
(B) Block level
(C) City level
(D) District level

Answers :

1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B)
6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (A)
16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (B)

SET-2

1. Which of the following is the demerit of a federation?
(A) It encourages regionalism
(B) It creates unity in diversity
(C) It gives considerable measure of autonomy to the states
(D) It prevents the central government from being despotic in behaviour

2. The first non-aligned summit conference was held in 1961 in—
(A) Cairo (Egypt)
(B) Belgrade (Yugoslavia)
(C) Nairoh (Kenya)
(D) Havana (Cuba)

3. Which of the following is wrong about the Parliamentary Democracy?
(A) It does not adjust easily according to the changed circumstances
(B) Ministers get more opportunities to show their abilities under this system of government
(C) President gives impartial advice
(D) There is close co-operation between the executive and the legislature

4. In a Presidential type of government, we find that—
(A) The Chief Executive is always elected
(B) The term of the Chief Executive is fixed for certain period
(C) The Secretaries are fully subordinate to the President
(D) All the above

5. A representative government is not possible without—
(A) Political parties
(B) Impartial election
(C) Political consciousness among the people
(D) All the above

6. "A political party consists of a group of citizens more or less organised, who act as a political unit and who, by the use of their voting power, aim to control the government and carry out their general policies." Whose words are these?
(A) Garner
(B) Gilchrist
(C) Gettell
(D) MacIver

7. Which of the following is the demerit of party system?
(A) It creates awakening among the masses who starts struggling for their demands
(B) It compels the government to work according to public opinion
(C) It leads government to introduce reforms
(D) It divides nation into several groups

8. In India there is
(A) One party system
(B) Bi-party system
(C) Multi party system
(D) None of the above

9. A coalition government in a country is generally formed where there is—
(A) Two party system
(B) One party system
(C) Multi party system dominated by one party
(D) No party system

10. The real work of opposition party in a democratic country is—
(A) To make delays in legislation
(B) To put obstacles in the way of the government of the rival parties
(C) To topple down the government of the rival parties
(D) To offer the healthy criticism to the government of rival parties

11. Which of the following conditions is necessary to make party system successful?
(A) Political parties should be organised on caste basis
(B) Political parties should give more importance to the local problems than national issues
(C) Political parties should try to solve the economic and political problems
(D) Political parties should not allow the people to take active interest in the politics

12. Ultimate object of a political party is—
(A) To contest election
(B) To expose the weakness of rival political parties
(C) To form and run their own government according to their own policies
(D) To increase their strength or membership

13. Political equality means—
(A) Every citizen should be given political education
(B) Every citizen should be given a chance to work in the government turn by turn
(C) Every citizen should be given right to vote and contest election
(D) Every citizen should be a member of any political party

14. Adult franchise is disadvantageous—
(A) If the people cast their votes in favour of those candidates who give them money
(B) If the votes caste their votes to the candidates belonging to their own castes or religion and not to the able candidates
(C) If the people caste their votes thought lessly
(D) In all the above cases

15. Some articles of the Constitution of India were enforced even before 26th January, 1950, when were they enforced?
(A) December 24, 1949
(B) October 26, 1949
(C) November 26, 1949
(D) December 26, 1949

16. Indian constitution is—
(A) More rigid than American constitution
(B) More flexible than English constitution
(C) More rigid than both English and American constitutions
(D) More rigid than English constitution but flexible than American constitution

17. Indian constitution was prepared in—
(A) 2 years and 11 months
(B) 2 years and 18 months
(C) 2 years and 18 days
(D) 2 years 11 months and 18 days

18. Indian constitution after its completion was adopted by Constituent Assembly on—
(A) January 26, 1950
(B) November 26, 1949
(C) August 15, 1947
(D) October 2, 1948

19. Which of the following is not included in the preamble to the Indian constitution?
(A) Justice social, economic and political
(B) Education to men, women and children
(C) Liberty of thought, expression, faith and worship
(D) To promote equality of status and opportunity to all

20. The idea of Fundamental Rights was taken from—
(A) England
(B) America
(C) Iran
(D) Ancient India

21. President of the Constituent Assembly with whose signature the Indian constitution was adopted was—
(A) Dr. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

22. The ultimate authority according to the preamble of the Indian constitution vests in—
(A) The President
(B) The Prime Minister
(C) The President, Prime Minister and rulers of native states
(D) People of India as a whole

23. The parliamentary set up in the Indian constitution has been adopted from—
(A) U.S.A.
(B) Russia
(C) England
(D) All the above

24. Which of the following has been borrowed from Ireland by the framers of the Indian constitution ?
(A) Preamble
(B) Nomination of the members of Rajya Sabha
(C) Directive principles of states policy
(D) Supreme Court

25. Idea of concurrent list in Indian constitution was borrowed from—
(A) England
(B) America
(C) Australia
(D) Russia

Answers :

1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (D)
6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (C)

SET-3

1. It is "an association estalished by nature for the supply of man's every day wants." About which Aristotle said these words?
(A) Society
(B) Family
(C) Community
(D) State

2. Indian foreign policy of non-alignment stands for—
(A) Acting as a mediator between nations
(B) Non-involvement in the power block politics
(C) Co-operating with the neighbouring countries
(D) Taking side of all the nations

3. A subject is said to be in the concurrent list when a law can be passed on it by—
(A) The Central Government
(B) The Central and State Government both
(C) The State Government
(D) The President and the Prime Minister together

4. Who among the following persons is acknowledged as the father of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

5. When a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha, but not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days of its receipt—
(A) It cannot become an Act
(B) It is deemed to have been passed by both the Houses
(C) It is again referred to the Rajya Sabha
(D) It is reconsidered by the Lok Sabha itself

6. The Industrial Revolution was brought about on account of—
(A) The workers refusing to work with their hands
(B) The Government insisting on the use of machines
(C) Lack of market for hand-made goods
(D) Invention of machinery and its application

7. Which of the following is not the function of the state?
(A) To protect from external aggression
(B) To provide for education and public health
(C) To compel its citizens to be religious persons
(D) To maintain law and order

8. The first General Election of Lok Sabha were held in the year—
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) 1957

9. The signatories to Panchasheel declaration were—
(A) India and Myanmar
(B) India and Pakistan
(C) Malasiya and Myanmar
(D) India and China

10. Who among the following persons, was responsible for the merger of Pincely States into the Indian Dominion?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Sardar Vallabh bhai Patel
(D) Sri Vithalbhai Patel

11. Of the following which is not essential for a welfare state?
(A) Efficient administration
(B) People's participation in administration
(C) Preaching of the morals
(D) Social security system

12. The most essential function of a state is to make—
(A) Labour-laws
(B) Marriage-laws
(C) Laws for the protection of the people and the property
(D) Laws for health and education

13. Who led the Home Rule Movement in India?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai and Vipin Chandra Pal
(B) Mrs. Annie Besant and Lokmanya Tilak
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Surendra Nath Banerjee
(D) None of these

14. "One who owes allegiance to the state, has access to the civil and political rights and is inspired with a sprit of-service to the community" is known as—
(A) An ideal soldier
(B) A true politician
(C) A real citizen
(D) A great patriot

15. The constitution of which country inspired us, to establish a 'Republic' ?
(A) France
(B) Italy
(C) South Africa
(D) Britain

16. One may lose citizenship if one?
(A) Maintains trade with a foreign country
(B) Visits foreign countries
(C) Has correspondence with foreign people
(D) Takes political shelter in a foreign country

17. Which of the following is the hindrance in the way of good citizenship?
(A) To be more educated
(B) To be a wealthy person
(C) To be communal-minded
(D) To be religious-minded

18. "Man's life was solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and short." Who holds such views about the nature of state?
(A) Locke
(B) Hobbes
(C) Rousseau
(D) T.H. Green

19. "A man is born free and everywhere he is in chains," Whose words are these?
(A) Rousseau
(B) Austin
(C) Plato
(D) Hegel

20. Which of the following is not the duty of a state?
(A) To serve the people
(B) To command the people
(C) To protect the people
(D) To promote the health of the people

21. In a welfare state, the government—
(A) Restricts the liberty of the individuals
(B) Determines the fashions of the people
(C) Controls the trade and commerce
(D) Helps the people against poverty, old age and unemployment

22. Which of the following is not the organ of a government?
(A) Executive
(B) Judiciary
(C) Legislature
(D) Political Parties

23. The essential element of the modern state is—
(A) The Supreme Court
(B) The Political Parties
(C) The Division of Power
(D) The Sovereignty

24. Which of the following is not included in the executive wing of the government?
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The President or the King
(C) The Ministers
(D) The Judges of the Courts

25. A legislature of a country—
(A) Makes the laws
(B) Interprets the laws
(C) Protects the laws
(D) Enforces the laws

Answers :

1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (B)
6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)
16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (A)

SET-4

1. Which of the following is the function of a judiciary ?
(A) Maintenance of law and order
(B) Appointment of the Judges
(C) Imparting justice according to the laws
(D) Making of the laws

2. The main function of the Constituent Assembly is—
(A) Framing the Constitution
(B) Amending the Constitution
(C) Enforcement of the Constitution
(D) Interpretation of the Constitution

3. The legislature having two houses is known as—
(A) Uni-cameral
(B) Bi-cameral
(C) Upper House
(D) Lower House

4. Which of the following arguments is not in favour of the second chamber of a legislature?
(A) It safeguards against the domination of the lower house
(B) It provides for representation of the special interests and the minorities
(C) It helps is hastly legislation
(D) It gives representation to the Units in the federation

5. In a socialist country, the government—
(A) Control the means of production and distribution
(B) Controls the means of production only
(C) Control the means of distribution only
(D) Distributes equal wealth among the citizens

6. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the meaning and the position of Sovereignty? It is—
(A) The supreme and unlimited authority of the state in internal sphere only
(B) The absolute and unlimited power of the state in external sphere only
(C) The unlimited and ultimate authority of the state both in internal and external spheres
(D) The power which enjoys complete control over all the citizens in a state

7. A state ruled by a few persons for the good of all the people, is known as—
(A) Aristocracy
(B) Democracy
(C) Oligarchy
(D) Monarchy

8. A constitutional monarchy means a state where a king—
(A) Makes the constitution for the country
(B) Has to act according to the constitution
(C) Is elected by the people
(D) Is hereditary head of the state

9. The state governed by one person for the good of the people, is known as—
(A) Tyranny
(B) Monarchy
(C) Democracy
(D) Polity

10. In the unitary type of government, there is—
(A) Rule of one person for the good of all the people
(B) One unit of administration for the entire state
(C) Rule of a single dynasty for a long period
(D) Unicameral legislature

11. "Democracy is a government of the people, by the people and for the people." Whose statement is it?
(A) Rousseau
(B) J. S. Mill
(C) T. H. Green
(D) Abraham Lincoln

12. Where there is no hereditary king but an elected head of the state, it is known as—
(A) Democracy
(B) Monarchy
(C) Republic
(D) Federation

13. 'Residuary Powers' means those powers which are—
(A) Delegated by the centre to the states
(B) Enjoyed by the king or the President only
(C) Delegated by the state to the centre
(D) Retained by the centre or the state for themselves after division of powers between the centre and the unit states in a federation

14. Which one of the following articles in the constitution of India is related to the amendment of the constitution?
(A) Article 268
(B) Article 363
(C) Article263
(D) Article 368

15. In a parliamentary type of the government, the ministry is responsible to—
(A) The Upper House only
(B) The Lower House only
(C) Both Upper and Lower Houses
(D) The President or the King

16. Where an executive head, elected for a specific period is not responsible to the legislature and can be removed only by impeachment or death, such a government is known as—
(A) Dictatorship
(B) Presidential type of government
(C) Federal type of government
(D) Democratic type of government

17. Which one of the following is not the function of the executive in a state?
(A) To appoint and dismiss the ministers
(B) To enforce the laws passed by the legislature
(C) To appoint and dismiss the legislators
(D) To run the administration of the country

18. An independent Judiciary is—
(A) A safeguard for the civil rights of the people
(B) A danger to the constitution
(C) An obstacle to the ministry
(D) A detriment to the Democracy

19. Which of the following pairs is not correct?
(A) Minto-Morley reforms Communal representation
(B) Government of India Act 1935 Provincial Autonomy
(C) Simon Commission-Partition of India
(D) Cabinet Mission-The constitution of the Constituent Assembly

20. For which of the following does the democracy not stand?
(A) Equality
(B) Liberty
(C) Fraternity
(D) Dynasty rule

21. Democracy can function successfully in a country if the people are—
(A) Physically strong and healthy
(B) Patriots
(C) Politically conscious
(D) Basically honest

22. Dictatorship is based on—
(A) Force and Fear
(B) Public Opinion
(C) Will of God
(D) Allegiance of the Constitution

23. The constitution (79th Amendment) Act 1999 relates to—
(A) Extension of reservation of seats for SC/STs in Lok Sabha and State Vidhan Sabha till January 25, 2010
(B) The grant of 33% reservation of seats in India legislatures including Parliament to women
(C) Clearing the way for reservation in promotion to union and state services to the candidates of scheduled castes and Scheduled Tribes
(D) Grant of Statehood to Union territory of Pondicherry

24. Of the following, which one is correct about a federation?
(A) Federation is domination of the centre on the states
(B) Federation is dependence of the centre on the states
(C) The centre and the states interfere in the matters of each other
(D) Federation is an association of states that forms a new one and all the units and centre derive power from the constitution

25. Which one of the following is not the power of the President of India?
(A) To declare emergency
(B) To appoint and dismiss the ambassadors
(C) To appoint and dismiss the members of Lok Sabha
(D) To dissolve Parliament and order for fresh election

Answers :
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (A)
6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (D) 15. (B)
16. (B) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (C)